Free practice paper · 2027 format
The whole written paper in the format the University of Pécs sets for General Medicine and Dentistry: 20 Biology and 20 Chemistry questions with five options, then 40 General English and 20 Medical English questions with four, with the answer and a full explanation for every one. The official sample tests are shorter; this one is full length. Written by IvyTest; it is not an official University of Pécs paper.
Before you start
| Section | Questions | Time | Marks (General Medicine and Dentistry Entrance Exam) |
|---|---|---|---|
| Biology | 20 | – | +1 correct, 0 wrong, 0 blank |
| Chemistry | 20 | – | +1 correct, 0 wrong, 0 blank |
| General English | 40 | – | +1 correct, 0 wrong, 0 blank |
| Medical English | 20 | – | +1 correct, 0 wrong, 0 blank |
Give yourself 100 minutes for all 100 questions, as the real paper does, with a simple calculator, and answer on paper before opening any explanation. Pécs publishes no marking scheme, so score one point for each correct answer and nothing for a wrong one, and answer every question. The tally at the end of the page scores each part on its own; the oral interview that follows the written exam is not on paper.
Section 1 of 4
20 questions
Which structure is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
Answer: C
Every cell has to make proteins, so prokaryotes and eukaryotes both have ribosomes (smaller 70S ribosomes in prokaryotes, 80S in the eukaryotic cytoplasm). The nuclear envelope, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus are membrane-bound structures, and prokaryotic cells have no membrane-bound organelles at all.
Which of the following statements about viruses are correct? 1. Viruses can replicate only inside a living host cell. 2. Every virus particle contains both DNA and RNA. 3. Some viruses are surrounded by a lipid envelope taken from a host cell membrane. 4. Viruses are classed as prokaryotes because they have no nucleus.
Answer: A
Viruses are obligate intracellular agents, and enveloped viruses such as influenza wrap themselves in host membrane as they bud, so statements 1 and 3 are true. A virus carries either DNA or RNA as its genome, never both, and it is not a prokaryote: it is not a cell at all, having no cytoplasm, ribosomes or metabolism of its own.
Red blood cells, whose cytoplasm is roughly isotonic with 0.9% NaCl, are placed in a 0.3% NaCl solution. What happens to them?
Answer: E
The 0.3% solution is hypotonic to the cells, so water moves by osmosis into the cells, where the solute concentration is higher; with no cell wall to resist, they swell and may burst. Shrinking would happen in a hypertonic solution; the fact that NaCl cannot cross the membrane freely is exactly why water moves instead.
Which observation does NOT support the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of mitochondria?
Answer: B
The theory says mitochondria descend from free-living bacteria, so bacterial features such as circular histone-free DNA, bacteria-like ribosomes, division by fission and a double membrane all support it. The fact that most mitochondrial proteins are now encoded in the nucleus is not evidence for a bacterial origin; it shows how dependent on the host cell the organelle has become (it is explained afterwards by gene transfer, but does not itself support the theory).
In which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles of the cell?
Answer: D
In anaphase the cohesion holding sister chromatids together is broken and the spindle fibres pull each chromatid, now a chromosome, to opposite poles. In metaphase the chromosomes are still paired chromatids lined up at the equator, and cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm, not a phase of nuclear division.
A diploid cell of an animal has 2n = 8 chromosomes. How many chromosomes and how many chromatids does each daughter cell contain at the end of meiosis I, after cytokinesis?
Answer: A
Meiosis I separates homologous chromosomes, not sister chromatids, so each daughter cell receives 4 chromosomes, each still made of two chromatids: 8 chromatids in all. Four chromosomes with four chromatids is the state after meiosis II, when the sister chromatids have finally separated.
Which result of the Hershey–Chase experiment showed that DNA, not protein, is the genetic material of bacteriophages?
Answer: C
Phosphorus is found in DNA and sulfur in protein, so finding the ³²P inside the infected bacteria, and the ³⁵S left outside with the phage coats, showed that DNA is what enters the cell and directs new phages. The heat-killed smooth bacteria result is Griffith's experiment and the DNase result is Avery, MacLeod and McCarty's; both are real findings, but not Hershey and Chase's.
The template strand of a short stretch of DNA reads 3'-TACGGATTC-5'. What is the sequence of the mRNA transcribed from it?
Answer: E
RNA polymerase reads the template 3' to 5' and builds the mRNA 5' to 3' with complementary bases, using U in place of T: T→A, A→U, C→G, G→C gives 5'-AUGCCUAAG-3'. Copying the template's own letters with U for T gives the wrong bases, and the same letters labelled 3' to 5' describe an antiparallel molecule that would not pair with the template.
A mother with blood group A and a father with blood group B have a child with blood group O. What are the parents' genotypes?
Answer: B
A group O child is ii, so it received one recessive i allele from each parent; each parent must therefore be heterozygous, Iᴬi and Iᴮi. If either parent were homozygous (IᴬIᴬ or IᴮIᴮ), every child would carry at least one dominant allele and could not be group O.
Haemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder. A woman who is a carrier and a man who does not have haemophilia plan a child. What is the probability that their child will be a son with haemophilia?
Answer: D
The child is a son with probability 1/2, and a son receives his X from his mother, which carries the haemophilia allele with probability 1/2: 1/2 × 1/2 = 1/4. The tempting 1/2 is the probability that a son, once we know the child is a son, is affected.
Which of the following become shorter when a skeletal muscle fibre contracts? 1. the sarcomere 2. the A band 3. the H zone 4. the I band
Answer: E
In the sliding filament model actin filaments slide over myosin, pulling the Z lines together, so the sarcomere shortens and so do the I band and the H zone, where the two filament types do not overlap. The A band is the length of the myosin filaments, which do not change length, so it stays the same.
Which bone belongs to the appendicular skeleton?
Answer: A
The appendicular skeleton is the limbs together with the pectoral and pelvic girdles, and the scapula (shoulder blade) is part of the pectoral girdle. The sacrum may seem to belong with the pelvis, but it is part of the vertebral column and so of the axial skeleton, like the sternum, ribs and skull.
Into which vessel is blood pumped when the left ventricle contracts?
Answer: C
The left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood through the aortic valve into the aorta, which starts the systemic circulation. The pulmonary trunk receives blood from the right ventricle, and the left atrium is where blood enters the left side of the heart, not where it leaves.
Which statement about breathing and the transport of respiratory gases is FALSE?
Answer: B
A rise in pH does increase haemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, but higher affinity shifts the curve to the left, not the right; a right shift (the Bohr effect) comes with a fall in pH. The other statements are true: CO₂ travels mainly as hydrogencarbonate, haemoglobin has four chains each with a haem, and the contracting diaphragm flattens to enlarge the chest.
Which hormone diffuses through the plasma membrane of its target cells and acts by binding to a receptor inside the cell?
Answer: D
Cortisol is a steroid, lipid-soluble and able to cross the phospholipid bilayer, and its receptor in the cytoplasm then acts on gene transcription in the nucleus. Insulin, glucagon and ADH are peptides and adrenaline is a charged amine; none crosses the membrane, so they all bind receptors on the cell surface.
Which of the following are effects of stimulating the sympathetic nervous system? 1. The heart rate increases. 2. The pupils dilate. 3. Peristalsis and the secretion of saliva increase. 4. The bronchioles dilate.
Answer: A
The sympathetic system prepares the body for 'fight or flight': it speeds the heart, dilates the pupils and widens the bronchioles, so statements 1, 2 and 4 are its effects. Increased peristalsis and salivation are 'rest and digest' effects of the parasympathetic system; the sympathetic system slows digestion.
In a healthy person, the glucose filtered at the glomerulus is almost completely reabsorbed. In which part of the nephron does this happen?
Answer: E
The proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs all the filtered glucose and amino acids, using carrier proteins coupled to sodium transport, together with most of the water and salt. The glomerulus is where blood is filtered, not where anything is reabsorbed, and the later segments mainly adjust water and salt balance.
Which statement about the human liver is FALSE?
Answer: C
The liver does produce bile, but bile contains no digestive enzymes: its bile salts emulsify fats into small droplets, and it is pancreatic lipase that hydrolyses them. Glycogen storage, plasma-protein synthesis, urea formation and detoxification are all genuine liver functions.
Why does vaccination usually give long-lasting protection against a disease?
Answer: B
A vaccine presents the pathogen's antigens without causing the disease, and the adaptive immune response it provokes leaves long-lived memory B and T cells behind, which give a quick, strong secondary response. Ready-made antibodies are passive immunity, which fades within weeks to months, and phagocytes belong to innate immunity, which has no antigen-specific memory.
What directly triggers ovulation in the human menstrual cycle?
Answer: D
As the dominant follicle matures, its rising oestrogen output switches from negative to positive feedback on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary, causing a surge of LH that makes the follicle release the secondary oocyte. Progesterone from the corpus luteum rises only after ovulation, because the corpus luteum forms from the follicle that has already ruptured.
Section 2 of 4
20 questions
Which of the following statements about water are correct? 1. Its molecule is bent, with a bond angle of about 104.5°, so the molecule is polar. 2. Each water molecule can take part in up to four hydrogen bonds. 3. Ice is denser than liquid water at 0 °C. 4. Water dissolves sodium chloride because its molecules surround and hydrate the Na⁺ and Cl⁻ ions.
Answer: C
The bent shape leaves the dipoles of the two O–H bonds uncancelled, each molecule can donate two and accept two hydrogen bonds, and the polar molecules hydrate dissolved ions. Statement 3 is the tempting one, but it is reversed: the open hydrogen-bonded lattice of ice makes it less dense than liquid water, which is why ice floats.
Natural bromine consists of two isotopes, ⁷⁹Br (isotopic mass 79.0) and ⁸¹Br (isotopic mass 81.0). The relative atomic mass of bromine is 79.9. What is the percentage abundance of ⁷⁹Br?
Answer: A
If x is the fraction of ⁷⁹Br, then 79.0x + 81.0(1 − x) = 79.9, so 81.0 − 2.0x = 79.9 and x = 0.55, i.e. 55%. The answer 45% is the abundance of ⁸¹Br; a mean of 79.9 lies slightly closer to 79 than to 81, so the lighter isotope must be the more abundant one.
Consider the ion ⁵⁶Fe³⁺ (atomic number of iron: 26). Which statement is FALSE?
Answer: E
Forming Fe³⁺ removes three electrons only; the mass number counts protons and neutrons, so it stays 56. The atom keeps 26 protons and 56 − 26 = 30 neutrons, and 26 − 3 = 23 electrons remain, so every other statement is true.
Which of the following substances contains covalent bonds only?
Answer: B
Ammonia is a molecule of one nitrogen and three hydrogen atoms joined by covalent bonds, with no ions present. Potassium nitrate, ammonium chloride and sodium hydroxide do contain covalent bonds, but only inside their polyatomic ions (NO₃⁻, NH₄⁺, OH⁻); the ions themselves are held by ionic bonds, and magnesium oxide is purely ionic.
Which of the following molecules are polar? 1. CO₂ 2. NH₃ 3. CCl₄ 4. CHCl₃
Answer: D
Ammonia is trigonal pyramidal and trichloromethane is a tetrahedron with one different substituent, so in both the bond dipoles do not cancel. CO₂ (linear) and CCl₄ (symmetrical tetrahedron) have polar bonds too, but their shape makes the bond dipoles cancel, so the molecules are non-polar.
A mixture of 4.0 g of hydrogen and 48 g of oxygen is ignited, and the reaction 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O goes to completion. What mass of water is formed? (Aᵣ: H = 1, O = 16)
Answer: D
There are 4.0/2 = 2.0 mol H₂ and 48/32 = 1.5 mol O₂; 2.0 mol H₂ needs only 1.0 mol O₂, so hydrogen is limiting and gives 2.0 mol H₂O = 36 g. The answer 54 g treats oxygen as limiting, and 52 g simply adds the two masses, forgetting the 16 g of oxygen left unreacted.
A sample of gas occupies 6.0 dm³ at 27 °C and 100 kPa. What volume does it occupy at 127 °C and 200 kPa, the amount of gas being unchanged?
Answer: A
Using absolute temperatures, V₂ = V₁ × (T₂/T₁) × (p₁/p₂) = 6.0 × (400/300) × (100/200) = 4.0 dm³. The answer 14.1 dm³ comes from using Celsius temperatures (127/27), which the gas laws do not allow; 3.0 dm³ and 8.0 dm³ apply only one of the two changes.
What volume of water must be added to 50 cm³ of 2.0 mol/dm³ hydrochloric acid to dilute it to 0.25 mol/dm³? (Assume the volumes are additive.)
Answer: C
The amount of HCl is unchanged, so c₁V₁ = c₂V₂ gives V₂ = 2.0 × 50 / 0.25 = 400 cm³ of final solution; 400 − 50 = 350 cm³ of water must be added. The answer 400 cm³ is the final volume, not the volume of water added.
Concentrated hydrochloric acid contains 36.5% HCl by mass and has a density of 1.18 g/cm³. What is its concentration in mol/dm³? (Aᵣ: H = 1, Cl = 35.5)
Answer: E
1 dm³ (1000 cm³) of the acid has a mass of 1000 × 1.18 = 1180 g, of which 36.5% = 430.7 g is HCl, i.e. 430.7/36.5 = 11.8 mol. The answer 10.0 mol/dm³ ignores the density and takes 1 dm³ of solution as 1000 g.
For the equilibrium 2NO₂(g) ⇌ N₂O₄(g), ΔH = −57 kJ/mol, which statement is FALSE?
Answer: B
The forward reaction is exothermic, so heating favours the reverse reaction and the equilibrium constant decreases. Compression does favour N₂O₄, because it has 1 mol of gas against 2 mol on the left; a catalyst speeds both directions equally, and the equilibrium is dynamic.
1.0 mol H₂ and 1.0 mol I₂ are sealed in a 1.0 dm³ vessel and heated. At equilibrium, H₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI(g), the vessel contains 1.6 mol HI. What is the value of Kc at this temperature?
Answer: A
Forming 1.6 mol HI uses 0.8 mol each of H₂ and I₂, leaving 0.2 mol of each, so Kc = [HI]²/([H₂][I₂]) = 1.6²/(0.2 × 0.2) = 2.56/0.04 = 64. The answer 40 forgets to square [HI], which the coefficient 2 requires.
Aqueous solutions of the following substances all have a concentration of 0.1 mol/dm³: 1. NaOH 2. CH₃COOH 3. NaCl 4. HCl 5. NH₃. In which order does their pH increase?
Answer: C
The strong acid HCl has the lowest pH, then the weak acid ethanoic acid, then neutral sodium chloride (pH 7), then the weak base ammonia, and the strong base NaOH the highest. The sequence beginning with NaOH is the same list in decreasing order.
50 cm³ of 0.20 mol/dm³ HCl is mixed with 50 cm³ of 0.10 mol/dm³ NaOH. What is the pH of the resulting solution?
Answer: E
The acid supplies 0.010 mol H⁺ and the base neutralises 0.005 mol of it, leaving 0.005 mol H⁺ in 100 cm³, so [H⁺] = 0.05 mol/dm³ and pH = −log 0.05 = 1.30. The answer 1.00 forgets that the total volume is now 100 cm³, not 50 cm³.
Which of the following are redox reactions? 1. Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu 2. CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂ 3. 2H₂O₂ → 2H₂O + O₂ 4. AgNO₃ + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO₃
Answer: D
In reaction 1 zinc goes from 0 to +2 and copper from +2 to 0; in reaction 3 oxygen goes from −1 in H₂O₂ to −2 in water and 0 in O₂. Reaction 2 is a decomposition and reaction 4 a precipitation, but in neither does any oxidation number change, so neither is redox.
What volume of oxygen, measured at STP, is needed for the complete combustion of 8.8 g of propane, C₃H₈? (Aᵣ: C = 12, H = 1; molar volume at STP 22.4 dm³/mol)
Answer: B
C₃H₈ + 5O₂ → 3CO₂ + 4H₂O; 8.8 g of propane is 8.8/44 = 0.20 mol, which needs 5 × 0.20 = 1.0 mol O₂ = 22.4 dm³. The answer 112 dm³ is the oxygen for a whole mole of propane, and 4.48 dm³ is the volume of the propane itself.
Which statement about benzene, C₆H₆, is FALSE?
Answer: A
Benzene has no isolated double bonds: its six π electrons are delocalised over the ring, so it does not decolourise bromine water and reacts by substitution, which keeps the stable aromatic ring, rather than addition. The equal bond lengths and the flat ring are direct consequences of that delocalisation.
Which of the following compounds gives a positive silver mirror (Tollens') test?
Answer: E
Propanal is an aldehyde: its –CHO group is easily oxidised to a carboxylic acid while Ag⁺ is reduced to metallic silver. Propanone has the same molecular formula but is a ketone, whose carbonyl carbon carries no hydrogen, so it is not oxidised under these mild conditions.
6.0 g of ethanoic acid is heated with excess ethanol and a little concentrated sulfuric acid, and 6.6 g of ethyl ethanoate is obtained. What is the percentage yield? (Aᵣ: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16)
Answer: C
CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O: 6.0 g of ethanoic acid (M = 60 g/mol) is 0.10 mol, which could give at most 0.10 mol ethyl ethanoate (M = 88 g/mol) = 8.8 g, so the yield is 6.6/8.8 = 75%. Comparing the product mass directly with the acid's mass gives the impossible 110%, because the ester has a larger molar mass.
The molar mass of glycine, H₂N–CH₂–COOH, is 75 g/mol. What is the molar mass of the tripeptide Gly–Gly–Gly? (Mᵣ of water: 18)
Answer: B
Joining three amino acids forms two peptide bonds, and each condensation releases one water molecule: 3 × 75 − 2 × 18 = 189 g/mol. The answer 225 g/mol ignores the water lost, and 171 g/mol removes one water too many.
Which of the following statements are correct? 1. A nucleoside consists of a nitrogenous base and a pentose, with no phosphate group. 2. RNA contains deoxyribose and the base thymine. 3. ATP is a ribonucleotide carrying three phosphate groups. 4. The two strands of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds between complementary bases.
Answer: D
A nucleoside is base plus sugar, and adding phosphate makes it a nucleotide; ATP is adenosine (adenine plus ribose) with three phosphates, and base pairs are held by hydrogen bonds. Statement 2 describes DNA, not RNA: RNA contains ribose and uracil in place of deoxyribose and thymine.
Section 3 of 4
40 questions
I _____ in Pécs since September, and I already know my way around the campus.
Answer: C
An action that started in the past and continues now, with "since", needs a present perfect form, here the continuous "have been living". The present continuous "am living" cannot be used with "since".
When the paramedics arrived, the patient _____ consciousness.
Answer: A
The loss of consciousness happened before another past event (the paramedics' arrival), so the past perfect "had already lost" is needed. The present perfect "has already lost" cannot be anchored to a past moment introduced by "when ... arrived".
While I _____ for my chemistry exam last night, the lights suddenly went out.
Answer: D
The past continuous "was studying" describes the longer background action that was interrupted by a short one ("went out"). "Had studied" would place the studying before the power cut, which does not fit "while".
This time tomorrow we _____ on the train to Budapest for the interview.
Answer: B
An action in progress at a particular future moment ("this time tomorrow") takes the future continuous, "will be sitting". "Will sit" presents the action as a single future event, not one in progress at that moment.
This textbook _____ to my flatmate, so I need to ask before I borrow it.
Answer: B
"Belong" is a stative verb describing possession, so it is not normally used in continuous forms; the present simple "belongs" is correct. "Is belonging" is a typical error with stative verbs.
Christiaan Barnard _____ the first human heart transplant in Cape Town in 1967.
Answer: D
A finished action at a stated past time ("in 1967") takes the past simple, "performed". The present perfect "has performed" cannot be used with a finished time expression.
You _____ smoke anywhere in the hospital grounds; it is strictly forbidden.
Answer: A
"Mustn't" expresses prohibition, which matches "strictly forbidden". "Needn't" and "don't have to" mean only that something is not necessary, not that it is banned.
You _____ bring your own lab coat; the department provides one for every student.
Answer: C
"Needn't" expresses lack of necessity: the coat is provided, so bringing one is unnecessary. "Mustn't" would wrongly mean that bringing a coat is forbidden.
I feel terrible this morning. I _____ so much coffee before going to bed.
Answer: D
"Shouldn't have" plus a past participle expresses regret or criticism about a past action that had a bad result. "Needn't have drunk" would only say the coffee was unnecessary, not that it was a mistake that caused the problem.
Anna _____ the lecture yesterday; she was with me at the dentist all afternoon.
Answer: A
"Can't have" plus a past participle is a confident negative deduction about the past: since she was elsewhere, it is impossible that she attended. "Mustn't have" is not used for negative deduction in British English.
I can't find my stethoscope anywhere. I _____ left it in the lecture hall, but I'm not sure.
Answer: B
"Might have" plus a past participle expresses an uncertain possibility about the past, which fits "I'm not sure". "Should have left" would express criticism or expectation, not possibility.
I think you _____ talk to your tutor about it; she might be able to help.
Answer: C
"Should" plus a bare infinitive is used for advice. "Ought" needs "to" ("ought to talk"), while "must" and "had better" never take "to".
If it _____ tomorrow, we'll have the picnic indoors.
Answer: C
In a first conditional the if-clause takes the present simple with future meaning, so "rains" is correct. "Will" is not normally used in the if-clause of a condition.
If I _____ you, I'd ask the professor for an extension.
Answer: A
Hypothetical advice uses the fixed second-conditional form "If I were you". "Am" would make the situation real rather than imaginary, and "would" does not belong in the if-clause.
If you had told me about the deadline, I _____ my essay earlier.
Answer: D
A third conditional describes an imagined past: "if" plus past perfect, then "would have" plus a past participle. "Would start" would refer to the present or future, not the past.
You won't pass the anatomy exam _____ you start revising now.
Answer: B
"Unless" means "if not": you won't pass if you don't start revising. "If" and "as long as" reverse the meaning, saying that revising would make you fail.
I wish I _____ to the careers fair last week; everyone says it was really useful.
Answer: A
Regret about the past is expressed with "wish" plus the past perfect, "had gone". "Wish" plus the past simple ("went") refers to a present situation, which clashes with "last week".
I wish my neighbour _____ playing loud music every night; I can't sleep.
Answer: D
"Wish" plus "would" expresses irritation at someone's behaviour and a desire for them to change it. "Wish" is never followed by a present or present perfect form such as "stops" or "has stopped".
Penicillin _____ by Alexander Fleming in 1928.
Answer: C
The subject (penicillin) receives the action and the time is finished (1928), so the past simple passive "was discovered" is needed. The active "discovered" would mean that penicillin made the discovery.
The new wing of the hospital _____ at the moment, so the entrance is on the other side.
Answer: B
An action in progress now that is done to the subject takes the present continuous passive, "is being built". "Is building" is active and would mean the wing itself is doing the building.
By the time the ambulance arrived, the injured cyclist _____ to the side of the road by passers-by.
Answer: D
The cyclist was moved by others ("by passers-by") before another past event, so the past perfect passive "had been moved" is correct. "Had moved" is active and cannot be followed by an agent introduced with "by".
All the samples _____ before they are sent to the laboratory.
Answer: A
After a modal, the passive is "be" plus a past participle: "must be labelled". "Must label" is active and would mean the samples themselves do the labelling.
My wallet _____ while I was waiting at the bus stop, but I didn't notice until later.
Answer: B
The wallet is the thing affected and the action happened at a finished past time, so the past simple passive "was stolen" fits. "Has been stolen" cannot be linked to the finished past situation "while I was waiting".
The nurse _____ looked after my grandmother was extremely kind.
Answer: C
"Who" introduces a relative clause about a person and acts as the subject of "looked after". "Whom" is an object form and cannot be the subject of the clause.
My brother, _____ lives in Vienna, is training to be a dentist.
Answer: A
The commas show a non-defining clause, and "that" cannot introduce a non-defining clause, so "who" is needed for a person. "Which" refers to things, not people.
The student _____ laptop was stolen reported it to security.
Answer: D
"Whose" shows possession (the student's laptop). "Who's" sounds the same but means "who is" or "who has", which makes no sense here.
She passed all her exams with top marks, _____ made her parents very proud.
Answer: D
A non-defining "which" can refer back to the whole previous clause (the fact that she passed with top marks). "That" cannot follow a comma in this way, and "what" is not a relative pronoun after a noun or clause.
This is the research project _____ the whole department is most proud.
Answer: B
"Proud" takes the preposition "of", and in formal English the preposition comes before the relative pronoun: "of which". A preposition can never be placed before "that".
Is this the room _____ the entrance exam will take place?
Answer: A
"Where" introduces a relative clause about a place and replaces "in which". "Which" or "that" alone would leave "take place" without the preposition it needs ("which ... take place in").
My new phone is very _____ my old one; I can hardly tell them apart.
Answer: C
The fixed pattern is "similar to", and it can be modified by "very". "The same" needs "as" and cannot follow "very", and "similar with" is a common preposition error.
This year's exam was _____ last year's, so the cut-off score was lower.
Answer: B
Long adjectives form the comparative with "more" and are followed by "than". "As" belongs to the pattern "as ... as", not to a comparative with "more".
The patient was _____ to walk without help.
Answer: A
"Too" plus an adjective plus a to-infinitive means that something is not possible. "Enough" goes after an adjective ("strong enough"), and "so" or "very" cannot be followed by a to-infinitive in this way.
We don't have _____ to finish the experiment today.
Answer: C
"Enough" normally comes before a noun: "enough time". "Enough of" needs a determiner after it ("enough of the time"), and "time" in this sense is uncountable, so it has no plural.
The more past papers you practise, _____ you will feel on the day of the exam.
Answer: D
The double comparative pattern is "the + comparative ..., the + comparative ...", so "the more confident" is needed. "Feel" is a linking verb, so it takes an adjective, not the adverb "confidently".
When I first moved to Hungary, I wasn't used to _____ dinner so early.
Answer: B
In "be used to" (be accustomed to), "to" is a preposition and is followed by a gerund: "eating". The bare infinitive "eat" belongs to the different structure "used to" for past habits.
I _____ play tennis every weekend, but I stopped when I started university.
Answer: C
"Used to" plus a bare infinitive describes a past habit that no longer happens. "Was used to" means "was accustomed to" and would need a gerund ("playing").
This soup tastes _____; who made it?
Answer: A
"Taste" is a linking verb here, so it is followed by an adjective describing the soup, not an adverb. "Wonderfully" would describe how the soup performs the action of tasting, which makes no sense.
The new medication made the patient _____ dizzy, so the doctor changed the dose.
Answer: D
In the active, "make" plus an object is followed by a bare infinitive: "made the patient feel". "To feel" is used only in the passive ("was made to feel") or after verbs such as "cause".
_____ I open the window? It's very warm in here.
Answer: B
"Shall I ...?" is the standard way to make an offer or suggestion. "Will I ...?" asks about the future, not whether the listener wants you to do something.
I clearly remember _____ the door, so I don't know why it's unlocked now.
Answer: C
"Remember" plus a gerund refers to a memory of something already done, which fits here. "Remember to lock" means not forgetting a task still to be done, so it does not match the past action being recalled.
Section 4 of 4
20 questions
A man with an enlarged prostate and difficulty passing urine was referred to the _____ clinic.
Answer: C
Urology deals with the urinary tract and the male reproductive organs, so prostate problems belong there. Nephrology is the tempting choice, but it treats diseases of the kidneys themselves rather than the prostate or the lower urinary tract.
Diseases of the blood vessels, such as narrowed arteries and varicose veins, are the field of _____.
Answer: A
Angiology (from Greek 'angeion', vessel) is the specialty of the arteries, veins and lymph vessels. Haematology studies the blood itself, not the vessels it flows through, and phlebotomy is simply the drawing of blood from a vein.
In the sentence 'Her chronic asthma is now managed by a pulmonologist', the word 'pulmonologist' means the same as:
Answer: D
'Pulmo' is Latin for lung, so a pulmonologist treats diseases of the lungs and airways, such as asthma. A heart specialist is a cardiologist, a different branch even though both work in the chest.
Stomatology is the branch of medicine concerned with _____.
Answer: B
Stomatology comes from Greek 'stoma', mouth, and covers the mouth, teeth and gums. The stomach is the obvious trap because the words look alike, but the stomach and intestines belong to gastroenterology.
A reduced number of white blood cells is called leucopenia; in the same way, a reduced number of platelets (thrombocytes) is called _____.
Answer: B
The suffix '-penia' means a deficiency, so thrombocyte + -penia is a shortage of platelets. Thrombocytosis is the opposite, a raised platelet count, and thrombosis is the formation of a blood clot.
The suffix '-algia', as in 'neuralgia' and 'myalgia', refers to _____.
Answer: D
'-algia' means pain: neuralgia is nerve pain and myalgia is muscle pain. Inflammation is the tempting answer, but it is shown by '-itis', as in neuritis or myositis.
The surgical removal of the gallbladder is called a _____.
Answer: A
'-ectomy' means cutting out (removal), so cholecystectomy is removal of the gallbladder (cholecyst). Cholecystotomy uses '-otomy', which means only cutting into the organ, not taking it out; cholecystitis is inflammation of it.
In the sentence 'The X-ray showed changes typical of an arthropathy', the word 'arthropathy' means the same as:
Answer: C
'Arthro-' means joint and '-pathy' means disease, so an arthropathy is any disease of a joint. Pain in a joint has its own word, arthralgia, built with '-algia'.
The sinoatrial (SA) node acts as the heart's natural _____, setting the rate at which it beats.
Answer: C
A pacemaker sets the pace, which is exactly what the sentence describes: the SA node starts each beat and so sets the heart rate. A valve controls the direction of flow, not the rate of beating.
In heart block, the electrical impulse is delayed or stopped as it is _____ from the atria to the ventricles.
Answer: A
Electrical impulses are conducted, that is, carried along a pathway, and heart block is a fault in that conduction. 'Secreted' is used for substances such as hormones, not for electrical signals.
After the knee injury, the physiotherapist measured how far the patient could bend and straighten the joint, that is, its _____.
Answer: D
Range of motion is the extent to which a joint can move, measured by how far it bends and straightens. Muscle tone is the tension in a resting muscle, not the movement of a joint.
A patient whose blood pressure is persistently above the normal range is said to have _____.
Answer: B
'Hyper-' means above or excessive and '-tension' refers to pressure, so hypertension is high blood pressure. Hypotension, with 'hypo-', is the opposite, and hyperthermia means a raised body temperature.
In the sentence 'Smokers have a greater predisposition to lung cancer', the word 'predisposition' means the same as:
Answer: A
A predisposition is a tendency to develop something, which is what susceptibility means. Resistance is the opposite, the ability to avoid or withstand a disease.
In the sentence 'The elderly patient's hearing impairment made the consultation difficult', the word 'impairment' means the same as:
Answer: C
An impairment is a loss or weakening of a function, here of hearing. A hearing aid is the device that helps with the problem, not the problem itself.
Researchers continue to _____ to develop a vaccine that protects against every strain of the virus.
Answer: D
'Strive to do something' means to try very hard to achieve it, which fits the researchers' effort. The other words only look similar: 'stride' means to walk with long steps and 'stray' means to wander away.
In the sentence 'The swelling subsided after two days of treatment', the word 'subsided' means the same as:
Answer: B
When swelling or a symptom subsides, it goes down and becomes less severe. 'Worsened' is the opposite meaning and does not fit a sentence about successful treatment.
A study of the aetiological factors in a disease investigates its _____.
Answer: D
Aetiology is the study of causes, so aetiological factors are what cause a disease. Symptoms are what the patient experiences, which is described as clinical or symptomatic, not aetiological.
Knowledge that comes from observation and experiment rather than from theory alone is described as _____.
Answer: A
Empirical means based on observation and experiment. Hypothetical is the tempting distractor, but it describes something supposed or not yet tested, the opposite of empirical.
Sweating when the body is hot is a normal _____ response, not a sign of disease.
Answer: B
Physiological describes the normal functioning of the body, which is what sweating in the heat is. Pathological means related to disease, and the sentence explicitly says this is not a sign of disease.
In the sentence 'The biopsy revealed pathological changes in the liver tissue', the word 'pathological' means the same as:
Answer: C
'Patho-' means disease, so pathological changes are changes produced by disease. A biopsy is examined under a microscope, which makes the last option tempting, but that describes how the changes are seen, not what the word means.
About this paper
The University of Pécs publishes no past papers, but its own Sample tests page offers Biology, Chemistry and English sample tests as free PDFs, each with a separate PDF of solutions. They are the official picture of the paper: the answer-option formats on this page were counted on them, though they are shorter than the real paper. The practice paper on this page is IvyTest's own and full length: all 100 questions in the real format.
This paper keeps the format Pécs states for 2027 (Biology 20, Chemistry 20, General English 40, Medical English 20, 1 hour 40 minutes) and the item types of its own Sample Test 1: statement-combination and negatively phrased science questions, single-gap sentence completions in General English, and gap-fills and 'means the same as' items in Medical English. The science questions keep to the official topic list. Every question is new.
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