University of Szeged · oral entrance exam

Szeged Oral Entrance Exam: What They Ask, with Practice Questions

After the 60-question written test, every candidate for Medicine at the University of Szeged sits an oral exam: an interview with a professor on Zoom, about 20 minutes long, that starts with a general conversation and then asks two Biology and two Chemistry questions in English. Szeged publishes no list of oral questions, so this page sets out what its own pages say about the oral, how to prepare for it, and 28 practice prompts with model answer outlines, built from the official topic list.

The official exam page

From the University's own pages

How the oral exam works

Who examines
A University Professor ("interview with a University Professor")
Where
Online, on Zoom
How long
About 20 minutes
What is asked
A conversation on general issues, then 2 Biology and 2 Chemistry questions, in English
When
Day 2 or 3 of the exam session (the written test is on day 1); the schedule is announced after the written exam
Rules
Passport or ID at hand, two devices (one to take part, one to monitor), alone in the room, no headsets or smart watches, and dress appropriately

The University's entrance-examination page describes the oral in four sentences: it is an interview with a University Professor, conducted via Zoom, lasting about 20 minutes; after a conversation on general issues you are asked two questions in Biology and two in Chemistry, in English; its schedule is announced after the written exam; and you should dress appropriately. The exam calendar adds that each session's first day is the written test and the second and third days are for the oral interviews.

The same page lists the rules for both parts: your identity is checked first, so have your passport or ID card ready; log in on time, because late arrivals cannot join; use two devices, one for the exam and one whose camera shows you and your surroundings; no further devices, headsets, earphones or smart watches; and you must be alone in the room. Szeged does not publish how the oral is marked or how it is weighed against the written test.

The page says the exam as a whole, written and oral, is in Biology, Chemistry and English, and that Physics may be chosen instead of Chemistry in exams the Admissions Office hosts. It does not say whether a candidate who takes Physics is then asked Physics or Chemistry in the oral; if you choose Physics, ask the Admissions Office ([email protected]).

Read on the University's pages on 16 October 2026.

Preparation

How to prepare for the oral

  • Learn the official topic list for Biology and Chemistry well enough to explain each topic out loud, in order, in two or three minutes: the oral rewards a clear structure more than recall of a single fact.
  • Practise in English, aloud, with someone asking you follow-up questions. Record yourself on the device you will use, and check your camera, microphone and connection on Zoom beforehand.
  • Prepare honest answers to the general questions (why medicine, why Szeged, a challenge you overcame), with one specific example each. Do not memorise a script.
  • When you do not know an answer, say what you do know and reason towards the rest: examiners can follow your thinking only if you say it.
  • Use the practice prompts below as a mock oral: pick one general, two Biology and two Chemistry prompts at random, answer each in two or three minutes, and then check the outline.

Practice prompts

The general conversation

The oral opens with a conversation on general issues. These prompts are typical openers; the outlines are a structure for your own honest answer, not words to learn.

Prompt 1

Motivation

“Why do you want to study medicine?”

Model answer outline
  • Open with your real reason in one sentence; the examiner wants yours, not a textbook one.
  • Back it with one specific experience you actually had (a job, volunteering, a family situation, something you read) and what it showed you.
  • Show you know the reality of the work: long training, responsibility, hard days, not only the rewarding parts.
  • Link the reason to qualities you can demonstrate, such as patience, curiosity or working in a team, with a brief example.
  • Keep it to one or two minutes and avoid stock phrases like "I have always wanted to help people" unless you can say why.

Likely follow-up: What do you think will be the hardest part of being a doctor for you personally?

Prompt 2

Choice of university

“Why did you choose Szeged, and why Hungary?”

Model answer outline
  • State what drew you to this programme: a six-year medical degree taught in English, in Szeged, Hungary.
  • You may mention that the school is named after Albert Szent-Györgyi, who won the 1937 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for work including vitamin C while at Szeged University, if it genuinely matters to you.
  • Only quote facts you have checked yourself on the university's own website; never guess at rankings, numbers or details.
  • Give your honest practical and personal reasons (studying in English, living abroad, cost, recommendations from people you know) without apologising for them.
  • Show you have thought about living in a new country: independence, a new culture, and willingness to learn some Hungarian for everyday life.

Likely follow-up: How do you expect to cope with living away from home in a country whose language you do not yet speak?

Prompt 3

Resilience

“Tell me about a challenge you faced and how you overcame it.”

Model answer outline
  • Choose a real, moderately sized challenge you can talk about calmly: a failed exam, a difficult project, a family or health setback.
  • Situation: set the scene in one or two sentences.
  • Action: spend most of the time on what you did, step by step, and why.
  • Result: say honestly how it turned out, even if only partly successful.
  • Reflection: what you learned and how you would use it at medical school.

Likely follow-up: If the same thing happened during your first year of medicine, what would you do differently?

Prompt 4

Study habits

“How do you study, and how did you prepare for this exam?”

Model answer outline
  • Describe the methods you really use, not the ones you think sound best.
  • Name concrete techniques if you use them, such as testing yourself (active recall), spacing reviews over days, or past-paper practice.
  • Explain how you organised your preparation: a timetable, the topic list, how you found and fixed weak areas.
  • Admit what did not work and what you changed; it shows you can adapt.
  • Finish with how you plan to handle the much larger volume of a medical course.

Likely follow-up: Which topic on the syllabus did you find hardest, and how did you get to grips with it?

Prompt 5

Knowledge of the course

“What do you know about the medical programme you are applying for?”

Model answer outline
  • Start with the basics you are sure of: a six-year medical programme taught in English at Szeged, in Hungary.
  • Add any detail you have read on the university's own pages, and say where you read it.
  • If you describe the usual shape of a medical degree (basic sciences first, then clinical training), make clear you mean medical degrees in general.
  • Be honest about what you do not know yet, and say what you would like to find out.
  • Connect it to yourself: which part of the course you are most looking forward to, and why.

Likely follow-up: Which subject in the early years do you expect to find most demanding, and why?

Prompt 6

Current affairs

“Tell me about a health or medical topic you have read about recently.”

Model answer outline
  • Pick something you have actually read, and name where you read it (newspaper, journal, reliable website).
  • Summarise it in two or three plain sentences: what happened or what was found.
  • Give both sides, or the limits of the evidence, rather than only your opinion.
  • Explain why it matters for patients or doctors.
  • Do not quote figures you are not sure of; it is better to say "roughly" or "I don't remember the exact number".

Likely follow-up: What would you need to know before deciding whether that finding should change how doctors treat patients?

Practice prompts

Biology questions

You will be asked two Biology questions. Each prompt below is built from a topic on the official list; answer it aloud in two or three minutes, then check the outline.

Prompt 7

Enzymes and regulation

“How do enzymes lower activation energy, and how is their activity regulated?”

Model answer outline
  • Enzymes are biological catalysts, almost all proteins; the substrate binds the active site to form an enzyme–substrate complex (induced fit).
  • They lower activation energy by stabilising the transition state, holding substrates in the right orientation and straining bonds; they do not change ΔG or the position of equilibrium.
  • Activity depends on temperature and pH (each enzyme has an optimum; too much heat denatures it), and on substrate and enzyme concentration.
  • Competitive inhibitors bind the active site and can be outcompeted by more substrate; non-competitive inhibitors bind elsewhere and lower the maximum rate.
  • Cells also regulate enzymes allosterically and by feedback inhibition (ATP inhibits phosphofructokinase), by covalent modification such as phosphorylation, and by making inactive precursors (trypsinogen to trypsin).
  • Many enzymes need cofactors: metal ions or coenzymes such as NAD⁺.

Likely follow-up: How do competitive and non-competitive inhibitors change Km and Vmax?

Prompt 8

Glycolysis; citric acid cycle; mitochondrial ATP production

“Walk me through how a cell makes ATP from one molecule of glucose.”

Model answer outline
  • Glycolysis in the cytoplasm: glucose is split into 2 pyruvate, with a net gain of 2 ATP and 2 NADH; no oxygen is needed.
  • In the mitochondrial matrix pyruvate dehydrogenase converts each pyruvate to acetyl-CoA, releasing CO₂ and making NADH.
  • The citric acid cycle oxidises each acetyl-CoA to 2 CO₂, producing 3 NADH, 1 FADH₂ and 1 GTP (or ATP) per turn; two turns per glucose.
  • NADH and FADH₂ pass electrons along the electron transport chain in the inner mitochondrial membrane; oxygen is the final acceptor and forms water.
  • The energy released pumps protons into the intermembrane space; they flow back through ATP synthase, which makes most of the ATP (chemiosmosis).
  • Total yield is about 30–32 ATP per glucose (older books say 36–38).

Likely follow-up: What happens to pyruvate when there is no oxygen, and why does the cell bother?

Prompt 9

Transcription; translation; genetic code

“How is the information in a gene turned into a protein?”

Model answer outline
  • Transcription in the nucleus: RNA polymerase binds the promoter and reads the template strand 3′→5′, building mRNA 5′→3′.
  • In eukaryotes the pre-mRNA is processed: a 5′ cap, a poly-A tail, and splicing that removes introns and joins exons; the mRNA then leaves through the nuclear pores.
  • Translation on ribosomes in the cytoplasm starts at the AUG start codon (methionine); each tRNA, charged with its amino acid by an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, pairs its anticodon with a codon.
  • The ribosome moves along the mRNA through its A, P and E sites, and its rRNA catalyses the peptide bonds; a stop codon (UAA, UAG, UGA) brings in a release factor and ends it.
  • The genetic code is a triplet code: 64 codons, 61 for amino acids and 3 stops; it is degenerate, unambiguous and almost universal.

Likely follow-up: How does a bacterium switch genes on and off, for example the lac operon?

Prompt 10

Mitosis; meiosis

“Compare mitosis and meiosis.”

Model answer outline
  • Mitosis is one division giving two genetically identical cells with the same chromosome number (diploid in human body cells); it serves growth and repair.
  • Its phases are prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase, followed by cytokinesis; in anaphase sister chromatids separate.
  • Meiosis is two divisions after one round of DNA replication, giving four haploid, genetically different cells; in humans it makes gametes in the gonads.
  • Meiosis I is the reduction division: homologous chromosomes pair, cross over at chiasmata in prophase I, and separate.
  • Meiosis II resembles mitosis and separates sister chromatids.
  • Variation comes from crossing over, independent assortment of homologues, and random fertilisation.

Likely follow-up: What is nondisjunction, and which conditions can it cause?

Prompt 11

Cell membrane; membrane transport; exo/endocytosis

“Describe the structure of the cell membrane and the ways substances cross it.”

Model answer outline
  • Fluid mosaic model: a phospholipid bilayer with hydrophilic heads outside and hydrophobic tails inside, plus cholesterol, proteins and surface carbohydrates (glycocalyx).
  • Simple diffusion: small non-polar molecules such as O₂ and CO₂ cross directly, down their concentration gradient, with no ATP.
  • Facilitated diffusion through channels (ion channels, aquaporins) or carriers (GLUT glucose transporters), still down the gradient; osmosis is the diffusion of water.
  • Primary active transport uses ATP directly: the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase moves 3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in.
  • Secondary active transport uses an existing gradient: SGLT1 brings glucose into gut cells together with Na⁺.
  • Large particles move in vesicles: endocytosis (phagocytosis, pinocytosis, receptor-mediated uptake such as LDL) and exocytosis.

Likely follow-up: What happens to a red blood cell placed in a hypotonic solution, and in a hypertonic one?

Prompt 12

Neuron, resting and action potential

“Walk me through how an action potential is generated.”

Model answer outline
  • The resting potential is about −70 mV, inside negative: the Na⁺/K⁺ pump keeps K⁺ high inside and Na⁺ high outside, and the resting membrane is mainly permeable to K⁺, which leaks out.
  • A stimulus depolarises the membrane; if it reaches threshold (about −55 mV), voltage-gated Na⁺ channels open.
  • Na⁺ rushes in and the inside becomes positive, peaking around +30 to +40 mV; it is all-or-none.
  • Na⁺ channels inactivate and voltage-gated K⁺ channels open; K⁺ flows out and repolarises the membrane, briefly overshooting into hyperpolarisation.
  • The refractory period stops the impulse going backwards; in myelinated axons it jumps between nodes of Ranvier (saltatory conduction), which is faster.

Likely follow-up: What happens when the action potential reaches the synapse?

Prompt 13

Excretory system, kidney water and ion transport

“How does the kidney produce urine, and how does it control how concentrated it is?”

Model answer outline
  • In the glomerulus, blood pressure filters plasma into Bowman's capsule, about 180 L a day; cells and large proteins stay in the blood.
  • The proximal tubule reabsorbs about two thirds of the Na⁺ and water and almost all glucose and amino acids.
  • In the loop of Henle the descending limb is permeable to water, while the thick ascending limb pumps out Na⁺, K⁺ and Cl⁻ but is impermeable to water; this builds a salt gradient in the medulla (countercurrent multiplier).
  • In the distal tubule and collecting duct aldosterone increases Na⁺ reabsorption and K⁺ secretion.
  • ADH from the posterior pituitary inserts aquaporins into the collecting duct, so water is drawn into the salty medulla and the urine is concentrated; with little ADH the urine is dilute.
  • The result is about 1.5 L of urine a day.

Likely follow-up: How does the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system respond to a fall in blood pressure?

Prompt 14

Cellular and humoral immunity

“What is the difference between cellular and humoral immunity?”

Model answer outline
  • Both are adaptive immunity: specific, slower the first time, and with memory, unlike innate immunity.
  • Humoral immunity is based on B lymphocytes: once activated (usually with T-helper help) they become plasma cells that secrete antibodies.
  • Antibodies neutralise toxins and viruses, coat pathogens for phagocytosis (opsonisation), clump them and activate complement; they mainly deal with extracellular threats.
  • Cellular immunity is based on T lymphocytes, which mature in the thymus and recognise antigen presented on MHC molecules.
  • Helper T cells (CD4) recognise MHC II on antigen-presenting cells and release cytokines; cytotoxic T cells (CD8) recognise MHC I on infected or tumour cells and kill them with perforin and granzymes.
  • Both leave memory cells behind.

Likely follow-up: How does vaccination use this, and why is the second response faster and stronger?

Prompt 15

Muscles, bones, joints, muscle contraction

“Explain how a skeletal muscle contracts, starting from the nerve impulse.”

Model answer outline
  • The motor neuron releases acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction; it binds nicotinic receptors and depolarises the muscle fibre.
  • The action potential spreads along the sarcolemma and down the T-tubules, and the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca²⁺.
  • Ca²⁺ binds troponin, which moves tropomyosin and uncovers the myosin-binding sites on actin.
  • Cross-bridge cycle: the myosin head binds actin, performs the power stroke and releases ADP and Pi; a new ATP detaches it, and hydrolysing that ATP re-cocks the head.
  • Thin filaments slide over thick ones, so the sarcomere, the I band and the H zone shorten while the A band stays the same length.
  • Relaxation: acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine and Ca²⁺ is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which also uses ATP.

Likely follow-up: Why do muscles become rigid after death (rigor mortis)?

Prompt 16

Blood glucose regulation; pituitary, adrenal, thyroid, pancreas hormones

“How does the body keep blood glucose within its normal range?”

Model answer outline
  • Fasting blood glucose is normally kept at roughly 4–6 mmol/L by negative feedback.
  • After a meal, β cells in the islets of Langerhans release insulin.
  • Insulin increases glucose uptake into muscle and fat (GLUT4), promotes glycogen synthesis in liver and muscle and fat storage, and suppresses glucose release from the liver.
  • When glucose falls, α cells release glucagon, which makes the liver break down glycogen (glycogenolysis) and make new glucose (gluconeogenesis).
  • Adrenaline, cortisol and growth hormone also raise blood glucose, especially in stress or fasting; insulin is the only hormone that lowers it.

Likely follow-up: What is the difference between type 1 and type 2 diabetes?

Prompt 17

Mendel; dominant–recessive and sex-linked inheritance

“Explain Mendel's laws, and then how X-linked recessive inheritance differs.”

Model answer outline
  • Law of segregation: each individual has two alleles of a gene, which separate into different gametes.
  • Law of independent assortment: alleles of different genes assort independently (true for genes on different chromosomes, not for closely linked ones).
  • A dominant allele shows in the heterozygote; crossing two heterozygotes (Aa × Aa) gives a 3:1 phenotype and 1:2:1 genotype ratio.
  • X-linked recessive traits, such as haemophilia A or red–green colour blindness, mostly affect males, who have only one X chromosome.
  • A carrier mother and an unaffected father: half the sons are affected and half the daughters are carriers.
  • An affected father passes his X to all his daughters (carriers) and to none of his sons, so there is no father-to-son transmission.

Likely follow-up: Looking at a family tree, how would you recognise autosomal dominant inheritance?

Prompt 18

Darwin; origin of life

“What is natural selection, and how does it lead to evolution?”

Model answer outline
  • Individuals in a population vary, and much of that variation is heritable.
  • More offspring are produced than can survive, so there is competition for limited resources.
  • Individuals with traits better suited to the environment survive and reproduce more, passing those traits on.
  • Over many generations allele frequencies change and populations become adapted; with isolation, new species can form.
  • Example: antibiotic resistance, where resistant bacteria survive treatment and multiply.
  • Darwin did not know about genes; the modern synthesis combined his theory with Mendelian genetics.

Likely follow-up: How might life have begun, and what did the Miller–Urey experiment show?

Practice prompts

Chemistry questions

You will be asked two Chemistry questions. As with Biology, answer aloud first, then compare with the outline and try the follow-up.

Prompt 19

Atomic structure and quantum numbers

“Describe the structure of the atom and explain what the four quantum numbers tell us.”

Model answer outline
  • The nucleus holds protons (positive) and neutrons (neutral); electrons (negative, about 1/1836 of a proton's mass) occupy orbitals around it.
  • Atomic number Z is the number of protons; mass number is protons plus neutrons; isotopes differ in neutron number.
  • Principal quantum number n (1, 2, 3 …) gives the shell, its energy and size; azimuthal quantum number l (0 to n−1, i.e. s, p, d, f) gives the orbital's shape.
  • Magnetic quantum number mₗ (−l to +l) gives the orbital's orientation; spin quantum number mₛ is +½ or −½.
  • Pauli exclusion principle: no two electrons share all four numbers, so an orbital holds at most two, of opposite spin.
  • Orbitals fill by the Aufbau principle and Hund's rule, e.g. carbon is 1s² 2s² 2p².

Likely follow-up: How many electrons can the n = 3 shell hold, and why?

Prompt 20

Periodic table and properties

“How do atomic radius, ionisation energy and electronegativity change across the periodic table, and why?”

Model answer outline
  • Elements are ordered by atomic number; a group shares the same number of outer electrons and similar chemistry, and the period number is the number of occupied shells.
  • Across a period, nuclear charge rises while electrons enter the same shell, so atoms get smaller.
  • Down a group, extra shells and shielding make atoms larger.
  • Ionisation energy rises across a period and falls down a group, for the same reasons.
  • Electronegativity rises across a period and up a group; fluorine is the most electronegative element.
  • Metallic character therefore falls across a period and rises down a group.

Likely follow-up: Why is a sodium ion smaller than a sodium atom, but a chloride ion larger than a chlorine atom?

Prompt 21

Bonding; Lewis structures and geometry

“What types of chemical bond are there, and how do we predict the shape of a molecule?”

Model answer outline
  • Ionic bonds form by electron transfer between atoms with a large electronegativity difference, usually a metal and a non-metal, giving a lattice such as NaCl.
  • Covalent bonds are shared electron pairs; they are polar when the two atoms differ in electronegativity. Metallic bonds are cations in a sea of delocalised electrons.
  • A Lewis structure shows the valence electrons as bonding pairs and lone pairs, usually completing an octet.
  • VSEPR: electron pairs around the central atom repel and get as far apart as possible; lone pairs repel more than bonding pairs.
  • CO₂ is linear (180°), BF₃ trigonal planar (120°), CH₄ tetrahedral (109.5°), NH₃ trigonal pyramidal (about 107°) and H₂O bent (about 104.5°).
  • Shape decides polarity: CO₂ is non-polar because its polar bonds cancel, while water is polar.

Likely follow-up: Why is water a liquid at room temperature while hydrogen sulfide, a heavier molecule, is a gas?

Prompt 22

Equilibrium and Le Chatelier

“What is Le Chatelier's principle? Give an example.”

Model answer outline
  • At dynamic equilibrium the forward and reverse rates are equal, so concentrations stay constant although both reactions continue.
  • Le Chatelier: if conditions change, the equilibrium shifts in the direction that opposes the change.
  • Adding a reactant or removing a product shifts it to the right; raising the pressure of a gas reaction shifts it towards fewer moles of gas.
  • Raising the temperature favours the endothermic direction; a catalyst does not shift the equilibrium, it only reaches it faster.
  • Example, the Haber process, N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃, exothermic: high pressure raises the ammonia yield, and low temperature would too but is too slow, so a compromise of about 450 °C with an iron catalyst is used.
  • Biological example: CO₂ + H₂O ⇌ H₂CO₃ ⇌ H⁺ + HCO₃⁻ in blood shifts as CO₂ is produced in tissues and breathed out in the lungs.

Likely follow-up: Which of these changes alters the value of the equilibrium constant itself, and why?

Prompt 23

Acid–base theories; pH

“Compare the main acid–base theories, and explain what pH means.”

Model answer outline
  • Arrhenius: an acid releases H⁺ in water and a base releases OH⁻.
  • Brønsted–Lowry: an acid is a proton donor and a base a proton acceptor, forming conjugate pairs, e.g. NH₃ + H₂O ⇌ NH₄⁺ + OH⁻, where water acts as an acid.
  • Lewis: an acid accepts an electron pair and a base donates one, e.g. BF₃ + NH₃; this covers reactions with no protons at all.
  • pH = −log₁₀[H⁺] (strictly [H₃O⁺]); at 25 °C water's Kw is 1.0 × 10⁻¹⁴, so neutral pH is 7.
  • A strong acid dissociates completely (0.01 mol/L HCl has pH 2); a weak acid only partly, described by Ka.
  • Blood is kept at pH 7.35–7.45.

Likely follow-up: What is a buffer, and how does the bicarbonate buffer keep blood pH stable?

Prompt 24

Redox

“What are oxidation and reduction, and how do you work out oxidation numbers?”

Model answer outline
  • Oxidation is loss of electrons (oxidation number goes up); reduction is gain of electrons (oxidation number goes down): "OIL RIG".
  • They always happen together; the oxidising agent is itself reduced and the reducing agent is oxidised.
  • Rules: an element on its own is 0; oxygen is usually −2 (−1 in peroxides); hydrogen is usually +1 (−1 in metal hydrides); the numbers add up to the overall charge.
  • Example: Zn + Cu²⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Cu; zinc is oxidised from 0 to +2 and copper reduced from +2 to 0.
  • Biological example: NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle and re-oxidised in the electron transport chain.

Likely follow-up: What is the oxidation number of manganese in KMnO₄, and of sulfur in H₂SO₄?

Prompt 25

Isomerism

“What is isomerism? Describe the main types with examples.”

Model answer outline
  • Isomers have the same molecular formula but a different arrangement of atoms.
  • Structural isomers differ in connectivity: chain (butane and 2-methylpropane), position (propan-1-ol and propan-2-ol), functional group (ethanol and dimethyl ether, both C₂H₆O).
  • Stereoisomers have the same connectivity but a different arrangement in space.
  • Cis–trans (geometric) isomerism arises around a C=C double bond, which cannot rotate, e.g. cis- and trans-but-2-ene.
  • Optical isomerism: a carbon with four different groups is chiral; its two enantiomers are non-superimposable mirror images that rotate plane-polarised light in opposite directions.
  • In biology it matters: proteins are built from L-amino acids and most natural sugars are D-sugars.

Likely follow-up: How many chiral carbons does open-chain glucose have, and what are α and β anomers?

Prompt 26

Alkanes; alkenes, alkynes; reaction types

“Why do alkanes and alkenes react differently? Give a typical reaction of each.”

Model answer outline
  • Alkanes (CₙH₂ₙ₊₂) are saturated, with only C–C and C–H single bonds, so they are fairly unreactive apart from combustion.
  • With halogens under UV light they undergo free-radical substitution (initiation, propagation, termination), e.g. CH₄ + Cl₂ → CH₃Cl + HCl.
  • Alkenes (CₙH₂ₙ) have a C=C double bond, a σ bond plus a weaker, electron-rich π bond, which attracts electrophiles.
  • Their typical reaction is electrophilic addition: hydrogen (with a Ni or Pt catalyst), bromine (bromine water is decolourised, a test for C=C), hydrogen halides, and water with an acid catalyst to give an alcohol.
  • Alkenes also polymerise by addition, e.g. ethene to polyethene; alkynes (CₙH₂ₙ₋₂) have a triple bond and can add twice.

Likely follow-up: What is the main product when HBr adds to propene, and why (Markovnikov's rule)?

Prompt 27

Carboxylic acids; esters, amides

“What are the properties of carboxylic acids, and how are esters formed and broken down?”

Model answer outline
  • The carboxyl group −COOH makes them weak acids (ethanoic acid has a pKa of about 4.8); they form salts with bases and hydrogen-bond strongly.
  • Esterification: carboxylic acid + alcohol ⇌ ester + water, a reversible condensation catalysed by acid (concentrated H₂SO₄), e.g. ethanoic acid + ethanol → ethyl ethanoate.
  • Acid hydrolysis of an ester is the reverse and is also reversible.
  • Hydrolysis with a base (saponification) goes to completion and gives the alcohol and a carboxylate salt; soap is made this way from fats.
  • Fats (triglycerides) are esters of glycerol and three fatty acids; an amide forms in the same way from a carboxylic acid and an amine, and the peptide bond is an amide.

Likely follow-up: Why is an amide much less basic than an amine?

Prompt 28

Amino acids and peptide bond

“Describe the structure of amino acids and how the peptide bond forms.”

Model answer outline
  • An α-amino acid has a central carbon carrying an amino group, a carboxyl group, a hydrogen and a side chain (R); 20 are standard in proteins.
  • All except glycine are chiral, and proteins use the L form.
  • At physiological pH they exist mainly as zwitterions (−NH₃⁺ and −COO⁻), so they are amphoteric; the pH at which net charge is zero is the isoelectric point.
  • A peptide bond forms by condensation between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of the next, releasing water: it is an amide bond.
  • The peptide bond has partial double-bond character, so it is planar, does not rotate freely and is usually trans.
  • A chain has an N-terminus and a C-terminus, and is broken by hydrolysis with acid or with protease enzymes.

Likely follow-up: What holds a protein together at its primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary levels of structure?

Next step

Prepare the written test too

These prompts are IvyTest's, not questions the University has published. The written test comes first, and it is built on the same topic list.