Free practice paper · 2027 format

Medical University of Lublin Entrance Exam Practice Paper with Answers (2027)

Lublin publishes no sample test and no past papers. This is a free paper in its format, with every answer explained: the subject examination (Biology, 20 questions, plus all three additional subjects of 15 questions, Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics, so you can practise the two you choose) and the Qualification Test, 20 questions in 20 minutes. Written by IvyTest on the topics of Lublin's official list; it is not an official Medical University of Lublin paper.

Before you start

How to sit this paper

Questions
70: Biology 20 + Qualification Test 20 + Chemistry / Physics / Mathematics 15
Time
120 minutes
Options per question
5 (A to E)
Sections
5, against one overall time
SubjectQuestionsWho sits it
Biology20Everyone
Chemistry15Your choice of one
Physics15Your choice of one
Mathematics15Your choice of one
Qualification Test20Everyone

Sit Biology and the two additional subjects you will choose, without a calculator (Lublin does not allow one), then the Qualification Test against its own 20-minute clock. Lublin publishes no time limit for the subject examination and no number of options; the questions here have five. Each subject is scored out of 100, so check each part against the minimums: for 2027/28, 50% of the subject points together and 50 of 100 in the Qualification Test (60% in each part in 2026/27).

Section 1 of 5

Biology

Compulsory for everyone · 20 questions

Question 1

Biology · The Chemistry of Life · Foundation

Which bonds hold the two strands of a DNA double helix together between complementary bases?

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Answer: A

Complementary bases pair by hydrogen bonds: two between adenine and thymine, three between guanine and cytosine, which is why the strands can be separated by heat or by helicase. Phosphodiester bonds join nucleotides along each strand (the sugar–phosphate backbone), not the two strands to each other. Glycosidic bonds link each base to its deoxyribose; peptide bonds join amino acids and disulfide bonds link cysteines in proteins.

Question 2

Biology · Cell Biology · Foundation

On which organelle are proteins destined for secretion from the cell synthesised?

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Answer: B

Secretory proteins are made by ribosomes bound to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, which thread the growing chain into the ER lumen. They then travel in vesicles to the Golgi apparatus, which modifies, sorts and packages them but does not synthesise them. The smooth ER makes lipids and detoxifies; lysosomes digest material and peroxisomes break down fatty acids and hydrogen peroxide.

Question 3

Biology · Cell Biology · Standard

A red blood cell is placed in a solution whose solute concentration is higher than that of its cytoplasm. What happens?

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Answer: C

The solution is hypertonic to the cell, so water moves out across the membrane by osmosis, from the region of lower solute concentration (the cytoplasm) to the region of higher solute concentration, and the cell shrinks (crenates). Swelling and bursting happen in a hypotonic solution. Osmosis is the movement of water, not of solute, and it is passive: no pump moves water.

Question 4

Biology · Genetics and Gene Expression · Challenging

An mRNA codon reads 5′-AUG-3′. Written 5′ to 3′, what is the anticodon of the tRNA that pairs with it?

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Answer: D

Codon and anticodon pair antiparallel and complementary. Against 5′-A-U-G-3′ the anticodon reads 3′-U-A-C-5′, which written in the 5′ to 3′ direction is 5′-CAU-3′. 5′-UAC-3′ is the complementary sequence written in the wrong direction, the most common slip. RNA contains no thymine, so TAC cannot be an anticodon, and AUG is the codon itself.

Question 5

Biology · Genetics and Gene Expression · Foundation

A heterozygous plant (Aa) is crossed with a homozygous recessive plant (aa). What proportion of the offspring is expected to show the recessive phenotype?

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Answer: E

The heterozygote gives A or a gametes in equal numbers, and the recessive parent gives only a. The offspring are therefore Aa and aa in a 1 : 1 ratio, so half show the recessive phenotype. This is a test cross. 25% is the proportion of aa from a cross of two heterozygotes (Aa × Aa), and 75% is the dominant proportion in that cross.

Question 6

Biology · Genetics and Gene Expression · Standard

Red–green colour blindness is an X-linked recessive trait. A woman who carries the allele has children with a man with normal colour vision. What is the probability that a son of theirs is colour-blind?

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Answer: A

A son receives his Y chromosome from his father and one of his mother's two X chromosomes. The mother is a carrier (one affected X, one normal X), so each son has an even chance of receiving the affected X and, having no second X to mask it, of being colour-blind: 1/2. A quarter is the probability that any child, son or daughter, is a colour-blind son; the daughters receive the father's normal X and none is colour-blind.

Question 7

Biology · Evolution · Foundation

Which pair are homologous structures?

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Answer: B

Homologous structures share an origin inherited from a common ancestor, even when they now do different jobs: the human arm and the whale's flipper are built on the same pentadactyl bone pattern (humerus, radius and ulna, carpals, digits). The other pairs are analogous: they look alike or do the same job because of convergent evolution, but evolved separately (insect and bird wings, octopus and vertebrate eyes, the streamlined bodies of sharks and dolphins, plant and animal spines).

Question 8

Biology · Evolution · Challenging

In a population in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a recessive allele is 0.3. What is the expected frequency of heterozygotes?

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Answer: C

With q = 0.3, p = 1 − 0.3 = 0.7, and the heterozygote frequency is 2pq = 2 × 0.7 × 0.3 = 0.42. 0.09 is q², the frequency of homozygous recessives; 0.49 is p², the homozygous dominants; 0.21 is pq without the factor of 2; and 0.70 is p, an allele frequency rather than a genotype frequency. As a check, 0.49 + 0.42 + 0.09 = 1.

Question 9

Biology · Viruses, Prokaryotes and Fungi · Foundation

Which statement is true of bacterial cells?

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Answer: D

Bacteria are prokaryotes: their chromosome is a single circular DNA molecule lying in the nucleoid, not in a nucleus, and their ribosomes are the smaller 70S type (eukaryotic cytoplasmic ribosomes are 80S). They have no mitochondria, making ATP on their plasma membrane; their walls are made of peptidoglycan (chitin is the fungal wall); and they divide by binary fission, not mitosis.

Question 10

Biology · Viruses, Prokaryotes and Fungi · Foundation

Of what is the cell wall of a fungus mainly made?

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Answer: E

Fungal cell walls are built mainly of chitin, a polysaccharide of N-acetylglucosamine, the same material as the exoskeleton of insects. Cellulose is the main component of plant cell walls (lignin strengthens woody plant walls), peptidoglycan forms the walls of bacteria, and silica forms the walls of diatoms.

Question 11

Biology · Animal Diversity and Body Plans · Challenging

Which two groups of animals are deuterostomes, in which the blastopore becomes the anus?

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Answer: A

In deuterostomes the first opening of the embryo, the blastopore, becomes the anus and the mouth forms second; this group includes the echinoderms (starfish, sea urchins) and the chordates, among them vertebrates. Molluscs, annelids, flatworms, arthropods and nematodes are protostomes, in which the blastopore usually becomes the mouth. Sponges have no true tissues and cnidarians have only two germ layers, so neither is classed in either group.

Question 12

Biology · Form, Function and Homeostasis · Foundation

A person's core body temperature rises above its set point during exercise. Which response brings it back down?

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Answer: B

Negative feedback from the hypothalamus switches on heat loss: sweat glands secrete sweat, whose evaporation cools the skin, and the skin arterioles dilate so more warm blood flows near the surface and loses heat. Shivering, vasoconstriction in the skin, a higher metabolic rate and raised hairs all conserve or generate heat; they are the responses to a fall in temperature.

Question 13

Biology · Endocrine Regulation · Foundation

Blood glucose rises after a meal rich in carbohydrate. Which hormone, released from which cells, brings it back down?

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Answer: C

The β cells of the islets of Langerhans sense the rise in glucose and secrete insulin, which makes muscle and fat cells take up glucose and the liver store it as glycogen, lowering blood glucose. The α cells secrete glucagon, which raises blood glucose; adrenaline and cortisol also raise it. Insulin does not come from α cells.

Question 14

Biology · Digestion and Nutrition · Standard

Which statement about bile is correct?

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Answer: D

Bile is made by the liver, stored and concentrated in the gall bladder, and released into the duodenum. Its bile salts emulsify fats into small droplets, giving pancreatic lipase a larger surface to work on; bile itself contains no digestive enzyme. Bile is slightly alkaline and, with pancreatic bicarbonate, helps neutralise the acid chyme leaving the stomach.

Question 15

Biology · Circulation and Gas Exchange · Foundation

Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?

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Answer: E

The pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium; they are the only veins in the adult that carry oxygenated blood. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs, the aorta carries oxygenated blood away from the left ventricle to the body, and the venae cavae and the coronary sinus return deoxygenated blood to the right atrium.

Question 16

Biology · Excretion and Osmoregulation · Standard

What is the main effect of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) on the kidney?

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Answer: A

ADH, made in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary when the blood becomes too concentrated, inserts water channels (aquaporins) into the walls of the collecting ducts. More water is reabsorbed into the blood, and a smaller volume of concentrated urine is produced. It makes the ducts more permeable, not less; aldosterone, from the adrenal cortex, is the hormone that acts on sodium reabsorption.

Question 17

Biology · Reproduction and Development · Foundation

From which germ layer of the embryo does the nervous system develop?

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Answer: B

The brain, spinal cord and nerves come from the ectoderm: during neurulation a strip of it, the neural plate, folds into the neural tube. The ectoderm also forms the epidermis. The endoderm forms the lining of the gut and its glands and the lungs, and the mesoderm forms muscle, bone, blood, the heart and the kidneys. The trophoblast forms part of the placenta, and the hypoblast contributes to extra-embryonic tissues.

Question 18

Biology · Immunity and Defence Against Infection · Foundation

Which cells secrete antibodies?

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Answer: C

Antibodies are secreted by plasma cells, which develop from B lymphocytes activated by their antigen (usually with help from helper T cells). Helper T cells coordinate the response with cytokines, cytotoxic T cells kill infected cells directly, and neutrophils and macrophages are phagocytes; none of them makes antibodies.

Question 19

Biology · Nervous System, Senses and Movement · Standard

What causes the rapid depolarisation at the start of an action potential in a neuron?

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Answer: D

When the membrane reaches threshold, voltage-gated sodium channels open and Na⁺ rushes in down its concentration and electrical gradients, driving the potential from about −70 mV towards +30 mV. Potassium leaving the cell through voltage-gated K⁺ channels causes the repolarisation that follows. The Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase moves sodium out of the cell, not in, and keeps up the gradients over time rather than firing the spike; chloride entering would make the inside more negative.

Question 20

Biology · Ecology and Biodiversity · Standard

The producers in an ecosystem fix 20,000 kJ m⁻² of energy a year. If about 10% of the energy passes from one trophic level to the next, how much reaches the secondary consumers?

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Answer: E

Primary consumers receive about 10% of what the producers fix, 2,000 kJ m⁻², and secondary consumers about 10% of that, 200 kJ m⁻². The rest is lost at each step, mostly as heat from respiration and in material not eaten or not digested. 2,000 is the primary consumers' share; 20 would be the tertiary consumers'.

Section 2 of 5

Chemistry

Your choice: this or Physics / Mathematics · 15 questions

Question 21

Chemistry · Matter, Atoms and the Periodic Table · Foundation

How many protons, neutrons and electrons does a neutral atom of chlorine-37 (atomic number 17) contain?

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Answer: A

The atomic number gives the protons, 17, and in a neutral atom the electrons equal the protons, 17. The mass number, 37, counts protons plus neutrons, so there are 37 − 17 = 20 neutrons. Taking the mass number as the neutron count gives 37; 18 electrons would be the chloride ion, Cl⁻, not the neutral atom.

Question 22

Chemistry · Chemical Bonding and Nomenclature · Foundation

Which of these compounds is held together by ionic bonding?

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Answer: B

Magnesium, a metal, gives two electrons to oxygen, a non-metal, forming Mg²⁺ and O²⁻ ions held in a lattice by ionic bonds; the large difference in electronegativity between them is the sign. The other four are compounds of non-metals only, whose atoms share electrons in covalent bonds: polar in HCl, NH₃ and the C=O bonds of CO₂, and almost non-polar in the C–H bonds of CH₄. HCl ionises when it dissolves in water, but the molecule itself is covalent.

Question 23

Chemistry · Stoichiometry and Chemical Reactions · Standard

Methane burns completely in oxygen: CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O. What mass of water is formed when 2 mol of methane burn? (H = 1, O = 16)

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Answer: C

The equation gives 2 mol of water for every 1 mol of methane, so 2 mol of methane give 4 mol of water. The molar mass of water is 2 × 1 + 16 = 18 g mol⁻¹, so 4 × 18 = 72 g. 36 g forgets that there are 2 mol of methane, and 88 g is the mass of carbon dioxide (2 mol × 44 g mol⁻¹), not of water.

Question 24

Chemistry · Reaction Energy, Reversibility and Rate · Standard

The synthesis of ammonia, N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃, is exothermic. What happens when the temperature of the equilibrium mixture is raised?

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Answer: D

By Le Chatelier's principle, raising the temperature favours the endothermic direction, which here is the reverse reaction, so the equilibrium shifts to the left and less ammonia is present; for an exothermic reaction the equilibrium constant falls as the temperature rises. A higher temperature does make equilibrium arrive faster, which is why industry uses a compromise temperature, but the reaction never stops: forward and back reactions go on at equal rates.

Question 25

Chemistry · Water and the States of Matter · Foundation

Water (H₂O) boils at 100 °C, while hydrogen sulfide (H₂S), a heavier molecule of the same shape, boils at about −60 °C. What explains the difference?

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Answer: E

Oxygen is far more electronegative than sulfur, so each water molecule can form hydrogen bonds to its neighbours, much stronger attractions than the weak forces between H₂S molecules; more energy is needed to separate the molecules, and the boiling point is far higher. H₂S is the heavier molecule (34 against 18 g mol⁻¹), water is strongly polar, and boiling separates molecules without breaking any covalent bond.

Question 26

Chemistry · Solutions, Concentration and Osmosis · Standard

What mass of sodium chloride (M = 58.5 g mol⁻¹) is needed to make 500 mL of a 0.20 mol L⁻¹ solution?

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Answer: A

Moles needed = concentration × volume = 0.20 mol L⁻¹ × 0.500 L = 0.10 mol, and mass = 0.10 mol × 58.5 g mol⁻¹ = 5.85 g. 11.7 g is the mass for a whole litre, the usual slip of forgetting to convert 500 mL; 58.5 g is one mole.

Question 27

Chemistry · Acids, Bases, Salts and Buffers · Standard

What is the pH of a 0.001 mol L⁻¹ solution of sodium hydroxide at 25 °C?

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Answer: B

Sodium hydroxide is a strong base and dissociates completely, so [OH⁻] = 0.001 = 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹ and pOH = 3. At 25 °C pH + pOH = 14, so pH = 14 − 3 = 11. A pH of 3 is the pOH, or the pH of a 0.001 mol L⁻¹ strong acid.

Question 28

Chemistry · Acids, Bases, Salts and Buffers · Foundation

Which mixture of aqueous solutions acts as a buffer?

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Answer: C

A buffer is a weak acid with its conjugate base (or a weak base with its conjugate acid): ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH, and the ethanoate ion from sodium ethanoate. Added H⁺ is taken up by CH₃COO⁻ and added OH⁻ by CH₃COOH, so the pH barely changes. The other mixtures pair a strong acid or base with a neutral salt, and nothing in them can absorb added acid or base without a large change in pH.

Question 29

Chemistry · Hydrocarbons and Aromatic Compounds · Foundation

Which reaction is typical of alkenes such as ethene?

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Answer: D

The C=C double bond makes alkenes unsaturated, and their characteristic reaction is addition: bromine adds across the double bond (CH₂=CH₂ + Br₂ → CH₂Br–CH₂Br), and the orange bromine water turns colourless, the standard test for an alkene. Radical substitution in UV light is typical of alkanes, and electrophilic substitution of aromatic compounds such as benzene; alkenes burn readily.

Question 30

Chemistry · Oxygen Derivatives of Hydrocarbons · Challenging

Propan-2-ol, CH₃–CH(OH)–CH₃, is oxidised by warm acidified potassium dichromate. What is the organic product?

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Answer: E

Propan-2-ol is a secondary alcohol: its –OH is on a carbon bonded to two other carbons, and oxidation turns that carbon into a ketone carbonyl, giving propanone, CH₃–CO–CH₃ (acetone). A ketone cannot be oxidised further without breaking C–C bonds. Propanal and then propanoic acid come from the primary alcohol propan-1-ol; propene would come from dehydration, not oxidation.

Question 31

Chemistry · Other Organic Derivatives and Polymers · Foundation

Ethanoic acid is warmed with ethanol and a little concentrated sulfuric acid. What forms?

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Answer: A

A carboxylic acid and an alcohol react, with an acid catalyst, in a condensation (esterification): CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH ⇌ CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O, giving the ester ethyl ethanoate and water. Ethanal would need an oxidising agent; diethyl ether and ethene come from ethanol and sulfuric acid alone; an amide needs ammonia or an amine, not an alcohol.

Question 32

Chemistry · Carbohydrates · Foundation

Which disaccharide is made of one glucose unit and one fructose unit?

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Answer: B

Sucrose, cane or beet sugar, is glucose joined to fructose. Lactose, milk sugar, is glucose plus galactose, and maltose is two glucose units. Cellulose and glycogen are polysaccharides, long chains of glucose, not disaccharides.

Question 33

Chemistry · Lipids · Standard

A triglyceride is boiled with aqueous sodium hydroxide (saponification). What are the products?

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Answer: C

A triglyceride is an ester of glycerol (propane-1,2,3-triol) with three fatty acids. Alkaline hydrolysis breaks the three ester bonds, giving glycerol and, because the solution is alkaline, the sodium salts of the fatty acids rather than the free acids: these salts are soap. There is no glucose, amino acid, cholesterol or ethanol in a triglyceride.

Question 34

Chemistry · Proteins and Amino Acids · Standard

Three amino acids are joined in a line to form a tripeptide. How many molecules of water are released?

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Answer: D

Each peptide bond forms by condensation between the –COOH of one amino acid and the –NH₂ of the next, releasing one molecule of water. A chain of three amino acids has two peptide bonds, so two molecules of water are released; in general, n amino acids in a line give n − 1 water molecules. Three would be the number of amino acids, not of bonds.

Question 35

Chemistry · Basic Mathematics for Chemistry · Foundation

How is 0.00045 written in standard form?

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Answer: E

Move the decimal point four places to the right to give 4.5, a number between 1 and 10, so the power of ten is −4: 4.5 × 10⁻⁴. 45 × 10⁻³ is 0.045 and is not in standard form anyway, 4.5 × 10⁻³ is 0.0045, 0.45 × 10⁻⁵ is 0.0000045, and 4.5 × 10⁴ is 45,000.

Section 3 of 5

Physics

Your choice: this or Chemistry / Mathematics · 15 questions

Question 36

Physics · Units, Measurement and Vectors · Foundation

Which of these is the pascal, the SI unit of pressure, expressed in SI base units?

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Answer: B

Pressure is force per area: 1 Pa = 1 N m⁻², and 1 N = 1 kg m s⁻², so 1 Pa = kg m s⁻² ÷ m² = kg m⁻¹ s⁻². The tempting kg m s⁻² is the newton itself (force, not pressure); kg m² s⁻² is the joule (energy); kg m⁻³ is the unit of density.

Question 37

Physics · Kinematics · Foundation

An ambulance travelling at 20 m s⁻¹ brakes with constant deceleration and stops in 4.0 s. How far does it travel while braking?

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Answer: D

Under constant deceleration the average speed is (20 + 0)/2 = 10 m s⁻¹, so the distance is 10 m s⁻¹ × 4.0 s = 40 m. Check: a = 20/4.0 = 5 m s⁻² and s = v²/(2a) = 400/10 = 40 m. 80 m comes from multiplying the initial speed by the time, as if the ambulance had not slowed down at all.

Question 38

Physics · Forces and Newton's Laws · Standard

A 70 kg patient stands on a bathroom scale in a hospital lift that is accelerating upwards at 2.0 m s⁻². Taking g = 10 m s⁻², what force does the scale register?

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Answer: A

The scale reads the normal force N. Newton's second law upwards: N − mg = ma, so N = m(g + a) = 70 × (10 + 2.0) = 840 N. 700 N is the reading at rest or at constant velocity; 560 N, m(g − a), is the reading when the lift accelerates downwards; 140 N is only the resultant force ma.

Question 39

Physics · Equilibrium and Torque · Challenging

A forearm is held horizontal with a 2.0 kg mass in the hand, 30 cm from the elbow joint. The biceps tendon is attached 3.0 cm from the elbow and pulls vertically upwards. Ignoring the weight of the forearm and taking g = 10 m s⁻², what force must the biceps exert?

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Answer: C

Take moments about the elbow. The load's weight is 2.0 × 10 = 20 N at 0.30 m, a moment of 6.0 N m. The biceps acts at 0.030 m, so F × 0.030 = 6.0 and F = 200 N. The muscle works at a mechanical disadvantage of 10: its lever arm is a tenth of the load's, so it must pull ten times harder. 20 N is just the weight of the load.

Question 40

Physics · Work, Energy and Momentum · Standard

A 2.0 kg trolley moving at 3.0 m s⁻¹ collides with a stationary 1.0 kg trolley, and the two stick together. What is their speed just after the collision?

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Answer: E

Momentum is conserved: 2.0 × 3.0 = (2.0 + 1.0)v, so v = 6.0/3.0 = 2.0 m s⁻¹. Kinetic energy is not conserved in a collision where the bodies stick together: it falls from 9.0 J to 6.0 J. 6.0 m s⁻¹ is the momentum in kg m s⁻¹, not a speed.

Question 41

Physics · Simple Harmonic Motion · Foundation

A simple pendulum swinging through small angles has period T. Its length is made four times longer. What is its new period?

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Answer: B

For small swings T = 2π√(L/g), so the period is proportional to the square root of the length. Four times the length gives √4 = 2 times the period, 2T. 4T forgets the square root; the mass of the bob and (for small angles) the amplitude do not affect the period.

Question 42

Physics · Mechanical Waves and Sound · Standard

A diagnostic ultrasound probe emits waves of frequency 2.0 MHz. Taking the speed of sound in soft tissue as 1500 m s⁻¹, what is their wavelength in the tissue?

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Answer: A

v = fλ, so λ = v/f = 1500 / (2.0 × 10⁶) = 7.5 × 10⁻⁴ m = 0.75 mm. 7.5 mm is a slip of one power of ten when converting from metres. The short wavelength is why ultrasound can resolve millimetre-scale structures.

Question 43

Physics · Fluids · Standard

Blood flows steadily through an artery that narrows so that its internal radius halves. Treating blood as incompressible, with the same volume flow rate in both parts, how does the speed in the narrow part compare with the speed in the wide part?

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Answer: D

By the continuity equation the volume flow rate Av is the same in both parts. The area is πr², so halving the radius makes the area a quarter, and the speed must rise four times. 'Twice' halves the area instead of quartering it; 'sixteen times' confuses continuity with Poiseuille's r⁴ law, which concerns the resistance to flow, not the speed at a fixed flow rate.

Question 44

Physics · Gases and Thermal Processes · Challenging

A fixed mass of an ideal gas is sealed in a rigid container and heated from 27 °C to 327 °C. What happens to its pressure?

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Answer: C

At constant volume p/T is constant, with T in kelvin. 27 °C is 300 K and 327 °C is 600 K, so the absolute temperature doubles and so does the pressure. 'About twelvefold' comes from dividing the Celsius temperatures (327/27), which is wrong because the Celsius scale does not start at absolute zero.

Question 45

Physics · Temperature, Heat and Thermodynamics · Foundation

How much energy is needed to warm 2.0 kg of water from 20 °C to 30 °C? The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹.

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Answer: E

Q = mcΔT = 2.0 × 4200 × 10 = 84 000 J = 84 kJ. A rise of 10 °C is a rise of 10 K, so no conversion is needed for the temperature difference. 42 kJ uses 1.0 kg; 840 kJ is a slip of a factor of ten.

Question 46

Physics · Electrostatics and Electric Potential · Standard

Two point charges repel each other with a force F. One of the charges is doubled and the distance between them is also doubled. What is the new force?

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Answer: A

Coulomb's law: F = kq₁q₂/r². Doubling one charge doubles the force; doubling the distance divides it by 2² = 4. Together: F × 2/4 = F/2. 'F' assumes the two changes cancel, forgetting that the distance enters squared.

Question 47

Physics · Electric Current and Circuits · Standard

Two 6.0 Ω resistors are connected in parallel across a 12 V battery of negligible internal resistance. What current does the battery supply?

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Answer: B

In parallel, 1/R = 1/6.0 + 1/6.0 = 1/3.0, so R = 3.0 Ω and I = V/R = 12/3.0 = 4.0 A. Each resistor carries 2.0 A, which is the tempting answer if you forget to add the branches; 1.0 A would be the current with the resistors in series (12 Ω).

Question 48

Physics · Magnetism and Electromagnetic Waves · Foundation

Of the following kinds of electromagnetic radiation, which typically has the shortest wavelength?

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Answer: E

In order of decreasing wavelength the spectrum runs radio, microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays. Gamma rays from nuclear decay typically have the shortest wavelengths (and highest photon energies) of the five. All five travel at the same speed in a vacuum, about 3 × 10⁸ m s⁻¹.

Question 49

Physics · Optics · Challenging

An object is placed 30 cm from a thin converging lens of focal length 10 cm. Where is the image formed?

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Answer: D

Using 1/f = 1/u + 1/v with real distances positive: 1/v = 1/10 − 1/30 = 3/30 − 1/30 = 2/30, so v = 15 cm, a real image on the far side of the lens. Its magnification is v/u = 0.5, so it is inverted and half the size. 7.5 cm comes from adding 1/10 and 1/30 instead of subtracting.

Question 50

Physics · Radioactivity · Standard

Technetium-99m, used in medical imaging, has a half-life of 6 hours. A dose has an activity of 160 MBq when it is prepared. What is its activity 24 hours later?

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Answer: C

24 hours is 24/6 = 4 half-lives, so the activity falls to (1/2)⁴ = 1/16 of its starting value: 160/16 = 10 MBq. 40 MBq treats 24 hours as two half-lives; radioactive decay never reaches zero in a finite number of half-lives.

Section 4 of 5

Mathematics

Your choice: this or Chemistry / Physics · 15 questions

Question 51

Mathematics · Number and Arithmetic · Foundation

What is (3 × 10⁴) × (4 × 10⁻⁶), written in standard form?

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B

Multiply the numbers and add the powers: 3 × 4 = 12 and 10⁴ × 10⁻⁶ = 10⁻², giving 12 × 10⁻², which in standard form is 1.2 × 10⁻¹. 1.2 × 10⁻² forgets to adjust the power when moving the decimal point; 7 × 10⁻² adds 3 and 4 instead of multiplying them.

Question 52

Mathematics · Number and Arithmetic · Standard

A drug is prescribed at 15 mg per kilogram of body mass. A child has a mass of 24 kg, and the tablets contain 120 mg each. How many tablets make up one dose?

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Answer: D

The dose is 15 × 24 = 360 mg, and 360 ÷ 120 = 3 tablets. 2 tablets (240 mg) would correspond to a 16 kg child; 2.5 tablets would be 300 mg, which is 12.5 mg per kg.

Question 53

Mathematics · Sets, Numbers and Mappings · Challenging

In a group of 30 students, 18 study Biology, 15 study Chemistry and 5 study neither. How many study both Biology and Chemistry?

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Answer: A

30 − 5 = 25 students study at least one of the two. By inclusion–exclusion, n(B ∪ C) = n(B) + n(C) − n(B ∩ C), so 25 = 18 + 15 − n(B ∩ C) and n(B ∩ C) = 8. 3 comes from 18 + 15 − 30, which forgets the 5 who study neither.

Question 54

Mathematics · Sets, Numbers and Mappings · Foundation

Which of these numbers is irrational?

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C

√8 = 2√2, and √2 cannot be written as a ratio of two integers, so √8 is irrational. 0.25 = 1/4, √49 = 7 and −3 are rational, and 22/7 is a fraction, so it is rational by definition, even though it is a familiar approximation to the irrational number π.

Question 55

Mathematics · Algebra and Functions · Foundation

Solve 2x − 5 = 3(x − 4).

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Answer: E

Expand the bracket: 2x − 5 = 3x − 12. Subtract 2x and add 12 to both sides: 7 = x. Check: 2(7) − 5 = 9 and 3(7 − 4) = 9. x = −1 comes from expanding 3(x − 4) as 3x − 4.

Question 56

Mathematics · Algebra and Functions · Standard

What are the solutions of x² − 5x + 6 = 0?

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Answer: B

Factorise: you need two numbers that multiply to 6 and add to −5, which are −2 and −3, so (x − 2)(x − 3) = 0 and x = 2 or x = 3. Check: 4 − 10 + 6 = 0 and 9 − 15 + 6 = 0. x = −2 or −3 are the numbers inside the brackets, not the roots.

Question 57

Mathematics · Algebra and Functions · Standard

f(x) = 2x + 3 and g(x) = x². What is (f ∘ g)(2), that is f(g(2))?

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Answer: A

Apply g first: g(2) = 2² = 4. Then f(4) = 2 × 4 + 3 = 11. 49 is (g ∘ f)(2) = g(f(2)) = g(7), the composition in the other order.

Question 58

Mathematics · Trigonometry · Foundation

What is the exact value of sin 30° + cos 60°?

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Answer: D

sin 30° = 1/2 and cos 60° = 1/2 (they are equal because 30° and 60° are complementary), so the sum is 1. √3 would be sin 60° + cos 30° = √3/2 + √3/2.

Question 59

Mathematics · Trigonometry · Standard

A right-angled triangle has a hypotenuse of 10 cm and one angle of 30°. How long is the side opposite the 30° angle?

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Answer: C

Opposite = hypotenuse × sin 30° = 10 × 1/2 = 5 cm. 5√3 cm is the side adjacent to the 30° angle (10 × cos 30°), which is opposite the 60° angle.

Question 60

Mathematics · Geometry and Measurement · Standard

What is the volume of a cylinder of radius 3 cm and height 10 cm?

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Answer: E

V = πr²h = π × 3² × 10 = 90π cm³. 30π uses r instead of r²; 60π cm² is the curved surface area (2πrh), a different quantity in different units.

Question 61

Mathematics · Geometry and Measurement · Foundation

A circle has a circumference of 10π cm. What is its area?

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Answer: A

Circumference = 2πr = 10π, so r = 5 cm and the area is πr² = 25π cm². 100π cm² takes 10 as the radius instead of the diameter.

Question 62

Mathematics · Coordinate Geometry · Standard

What is the gradient of the straight line through the points (1, 2) and (4, 11)?

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Answer: B

Gradient = (change in y)/(change in x) = (11 − 2)/(4 − 1) = 9/3 = 3. 1/3 divides the change in x by the change in y; 9 forgets to divide by the change in x.

Question 63

Mathematics · Coordinate Geometry · Challenging

Which line passes through the point (0, 4) and is perpendicular to y = 2x + 1?

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Answer: E

Perpendicular gradients multiply to −1, so the new gradient is −1/2. A line through (0, 4) has y-intercept 4, so the line is y = −½x + 4. y = 2x + 4 is parallel to the given line; y = −2x + 4 changes the sign but does not take the reciprocal; y = ½x + 4 takes the reciprocal but keeps the sign.

Question 64

Mathematics · Statistics and Probability · Standard

The mean of five numbers is 8. Four of the numbers are 4, 7, 9 and 13. What is the fifth number?

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Answer: D

Five numbers with mean 8 add up to 5 × 8 = 40. The four known numbers add up to 4 + 7 + 9 + 13 = 33, so the fifth is 40 − 33 = 7. 8 assumes the missing number must equal the mean.

Question 65

Mathematics · Statistics and Probability · Challenging

Two fair six-sided dice are rolled. What is the probability that the two scores add up to 7?

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Answer: C

There are 6 × 6 = 36 equally likely outcomes. Six of them add up to 7: (1,6), (2,5), (3,4), (4,3), (5,2) and (6,1). So the probability is 6/36 = 1/6. 1/12 counts only the three unordered pairs, forgetting that (1,6) and (6,1) are different outcomes.

Section 5 of 5

Qualification Test

Compulsory for everyone · 20 questions

Question 66

Qualification Test · Cell Biology Terminology · Foundation

Which organelle is the main site of aerobic respiration in a eukaryotic cell?

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Answer: A

The Krebs cycle and the respiratory chain, the aerobic stages of respiration, take place in the mitochondrion, which makes most of the cell's ATP. Ribosomes make proteins, the Golgi apparatus modifies and packages them, lysosomes digest material, and the nucleolus assembles ribosomal subunits.

Question 67

Qualification Test · Cell Biology Terminology · Foundation

The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a region of lower solute concentration to one of higher solute concentration is called:

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Answer: B

Osmosis is the net movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane towards the side with more solute. Diffusion is the general term for the spread of any substance down its concentration gradient; active transport uses energy to move substances against their gradient; endocytosis takes material in by folding the membrane; facilitated diffusion moves solutes down their gradient through carrier or channel proteins.

Question 68

Qualification Test · Genetics Terminology · Foundation

An organism that carries two different alleles of a gene is described, for that gene, as:

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Answer: C

Heterozygous means having two different alleles of a gene (Aa). Homozygous means two identical alleles (AA or aa); hemizygous means having only one copy, as a male has for X-linked genes; polyploid means having more than two full sets of chromosomes; recessive describes an allele, not an organism.

Question 69

Qualification Test · Genetics Terminology · Foundation

The observable characteristics of an organism, such as its eye colour or blood group, make up its:

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Answer: D

The phenotype is the set of observable traits, produced by the genotype together with the environment. The genotype is the combination of alleles an organism carries; the karyotype is its set of chromosomes as seen under the microscope; the genome is all of its DNA; an allele is one form of a gene.

Question 70

Qualification Test · Healthcare and Clinical Vocabulary · Foundation

In medical terms such as 'hyperglycaemia' and 'hypertension', the prefix 'hyper-' means:

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Answer: E

'Hyper-' means above normal or excessive: hyperglycaemia is a raised blood glucose and hypertension a raised blood pressure. Its opposite is 'hypo-' (below normal); 'intra-' means within, 'peri-' around and 'brady-' slow.

Question 71

Qualification Test · Anatomy and Physiology Terminology · Foundation

Which anatomical term describes a position closer to the midline of the body?

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Answer: A

Medial means nearer the midline; lateral means further from it. Proximal and distal describe positions along a limb, nearer to or further from where it attaches to the trunk, and superficial means nearer the body surface.

Question 72

Qualification Test · Anatomy and Physiology Terminology · Standard

Which type of epithelium lines the alveoli of the lungs, where gases are exchanged?

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Answer: B

The alveoli are lined by simple squamous epithelium: a single layer of flat cells gives the shortest diffusion distance for oxygen and carbon dioxide. Stratified squamous protects surfaces that are rubbed (skin, oesophagus); simple columnar lines the stomach and intestine; transitional lines the bladder; pseudostratified ciliated columnar lines the trachea and bronchi.

Question 73

Qualification Test · Microbiology and Immunity Terminology · Standard

Which cells secrete antibodies?

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Answer: C

Plasma cells, which develop from activated B lymphocytes, secrete antibodies. Helper T cells coordinate the immune response but make no antibodies; neutrophils and macrophages are phagocytes; erythrocytes carry oxygen.

Question 74

Qualification Test · Microbiology and Immunity Terminology · Foundation

A microorganism that causes disease is called a:

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Answer: D

A pathogen is an organism that causes disease. A commensal lives on or in a host without harming it; a vector, such as a mosquito, carries a pathogen from one host to another; a saprophyte feeds on dead organic matter; a symbiont lives in close association with another organism, often to the benefit of both.

Question 75

Qualification Test · Chemistry and Biomolecule Terminology · Foundation

A large molecule made of many repeating units joined together is called a:

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Answer: E

A polymer is built from many monomers: starch from glucose, proteins from amino acids, DNA from nucleotides. Isomers share a molecular formula but differ in structure; isotopes are atoms of one element with different numbers of neutrons; an ion is a charged particle; a catalyst speeds up a reaction without being used up.

Question 76

Qualification Test · Chemistry and Biomolecule Terminology · Foundation

Proteins are polymers of:

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Answer: A

Proteins are chains of amino acids joined by peptide bonds. Nucleotides are the monomers of nucleic acids, monosaccharides of polysaccharides; fatty acids and glycerol make up triglycerides, which are not polymers.

Question 77

Qualification Test · Chemistry and Biomolecule Terminology · Foundation

Atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons are called:

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Answer: B

Isotopes have the same number of protons, and so are the same element, but different numbers of neutrons, as ¹²C and ¹⁴C do. Isomers are compounds with the same formula and different structures; ions carry a charge; allotropes are different forms of the same element, such as diamond and graphite; radicals have an unpaired electron.

Question 78

Qualification Test · Physics and Mathematics Terminology · Foundation

The SI unit of force is the:

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Answer: C

Force is measured in newtons (1 N = 1 kg m s⁻²). The joule is the unit of energy, the watt of power, the pascal of pressure and the coulomb of electric charge.

Question 79

Qualification Test · Physics and Mathematics Terminology · Foundation

In a set of data, the value that occurs most often is called the:

Show answer and explanation

Answer: D

The mode is the most frequent value. The mean is the sum divided by the number of values, the median the middle value when they are put in order, the range the difference between the largest and smallest, and the variance a measure of spread.

Question 80

Qualification Test · Healthcare and Clinical Vocabulary · Foundation

A patient with tachycardia has:

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Answer: E

'Tachy-' means fast and '-cardia' refers to the heart: tachycardia is a resting heart rate above the normal range, usually over 100 beats per minute in an adult. A slow heart rate is bradycardia, low blood pressure is hypotension, and inflammation of the heart muscle is myocarditis.

Question 81

Qualification Test · Healthcare and Clinical Vocabulary · Foundation

In words such as 'appendicitis' and 'hepatitis', the suffix '-itis' means:

Show answer and explanation

Answer: A

'-itis' means inflammation: appendicitis is inflammation of the appendix and hepatitis inflammation of the liver. Surgical removal is '-ectomy', a tumour '-oma', a blood condition '-aemia' and pain '-algia'.

Question 82

Qualification Test · Cell Biology Terminology · Standard

In which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles of the cell?

Show answer and explanation

Answer: B

In anaphase the centromeres split and the sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles. In prophase the chromosomes condense, in metaphase they line up at the equator, and in telophase new nuclear envelopes form; interphase is the period between divisions, when DNA is replicated.

Question 83

Qualification Test · Genetics Terminology · Foundation

The process in which messenger RNA is made using a DNA template is called:

Show answer and explanation

Answer: C

Transcription copies a gene's DNA into mRNA. Replication copies DNA into DNA, translation builds a protein from the mRNA on the ribosome, a mutation is a change in the DNA sequence, and recombination is the exchange of genetic material between chromosomes.

Question 84

Qualification Test · Anatomy and Physiology Terminology · Foundation

Which definition of homeostasis is correct?

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Answer: D

Homeostasis is keeping the internal environment (temperature, blood glucose, water and ion balance, pH) within narrow limits, mostly by negative feedback. The other options describe digestion, cellular respiration, synaptic transmission and growth.

Question 85

Qualification Test · Physics and Mathematics Terminology · Foundation

A quantity that has both a size and a direction, such as velocity or force, is called a:

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Answer: E

A vector has magnitude and direction; velocity, acceleration and force are vectors. A scalar has magnitude only (mass, temperature, speed); a constant is a fixed value; a ratio compares two quantities; a coefficient is a number multiplying a variable.

The Qualification Test: what it covers, with 20 practice questions

About this paper

Medical University of Lublin Entrance Exam past papers

The Medical University of Lublin publishes no past papers and no sample test. Its Recruitment Conditions page links the official topic list for the subject-specific entrance exam, a Word document with the headings for Biology, Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics and a reference text for Biology and Physics, and lists recommended books for the Qualification Test, which has no topic list of its own. The page says a detailed reading list 'will be shared soon'. The practice questions on this page are IvyTest's own.

This paper keeps the structure Lublin publishes (Biology 20, two of Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics at 15 each, a 20-question Qualification Test, all multiple choice, each part out of 100) and the topics of its official list; the Qualification Test questions follow the terminology of its reading list. Every question is new, and every one has its answer explained.

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