Simulazione gratuita · formato 2027

Test medicina Pleven: simulazione gratuita con soluzioni

Una prova completa nel formato degli esami d'ingresso della MU-Pleven: Biology e Chemistry, ciascuna con 40 domande a risposta multipla (Parte A) e brevi risposte scritte (Parte B: cinque in Biology, quattro in Chemistry). I test d'esempio della MU-Pleven hanno le soluzioni ma nessuna spiegazione; qui ogni risposta è spiegata, e la Parte B ha risposte modello e criteri di punteggio. Scritta da IvyTest; non è una prova ufficiale della MU-Pleven.

Domande, risposte e spiegazioni sono in inglese, come il test vero: abituarsi a leggerle in inglese fa parte della preparazione.

Prima di iniziare

Come svolgere la simulazione

Domande
80
Tempo
120 minuti
Opzioni per domanda
4 (dalla A alla D)
Sezioni
2, con un unico tempo complessivo
SezioneDomandeTempoPunti (Medicine Entrance Examinations)
Biologia40–+1 se corretta, 0 se sbagliata, 0 se non data
Chimica40–+1 se corretta, 0 se sbagliata, 0 se non data

Svolgi le due prove di seguito, prima Biology poi Chemistry, come il giorno dell'esame. La MU-Pleven non pubblica un tempo limite, quindi 120 minuti per entrambe sono un'indicazione di lavoro di IvyTest; scrivi le risposte della Parte B su carta e poi confrontale con le risposte modello.

Sezione 1 di 2

Biologia

40 domande

Domanda 1

Biology · Body Organization and Tissues · Foundation

Which type of epithelium lines the inside of the small intestine?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: B

The small intestine is lined by a single layer of tall columnar cells (with microvilli and goblet cells), suited to absorption and secretion. Stratified squamous epithelium protects surfaces that are rubbed (skin, mouth, oesophagus); transitional epithelium lines the bladder, which stretches; simple squamous epithelium is for diffusion (alveoli, capillaries).

Domanda 2

Biology · Body Organization and Tissues · Foundation

Which of these is a connective tissue?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: C

Blood is a connective tissue: cells in a fluid extracellular matrix, the plasma. The epidermis is epithelial tissue, cardiac muscle is muscle tissue, and neuroglia (the supporting cells of the nervous system) belong to nervous tissue.

Domanda 3

Biology · Skeletal and Muscular Systems · Foundation

How many pairs of ribs does the human skeleton normally have?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: A

There are 12 pairs: 7 pairs of true ribs joined directly to the sternum by their own cartilage, 3 pairs of false ribs joined indirectly, and 2 pairs of floating ribs with no anterior attachment. Each pair articulates with one of the 12 thoracic vertebrae.

Domanda 4

Biology · Skeletal and Muscular Systems · Challenging

When a skeletal muscle fibre contracts, which part of the sarcomere keeps the same length?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: A

In the sliding-filament model the actin filaments slide over the myosin filaments; neither filament shortens. The A band is the length of the myosin filaments, so it stays the same, while the I band (actin only) and the H zone (myosin only) narrow and the sarcomere as a whole shortens.

Domanda 5

Biology · Blood and Immunity · Foundation

Which mature human blood cells have no nucleus?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: D

Mature red blood cells (erythrocytes) lose their nucleus and most organelles during development, which leaves more room for haemoglobin and gives them their biconcave shape. All white blood cells, including neutrophils, lymphocytes and monocytes, keep their nucleus.

Domanda 6

Biology · Blood and Immunity · Standard

A person has blood group A. Which antibodies of the ABO system are present in their plasma?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: B

Group A means the red cells carry antigen A, so the plasma cannot contain anti-A (it would destroy the person's own cells); it contains anti-B. Group B has anti-A, group O has both, and group AB has neither.

Domanda 7

Biology · Heart, Circulation and Lymph · Foundation

Which valve lies between the left atrium and the left ventricle?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: D

The left atrioventricular valve has two cusps: the bicuspid or mitral valve. The tricuspid valve is the right atrioventricular valve; the pulmonary and aortic valves are the semilunar valves at the exits of the right and left ventricles.

Domanda 8

Biology · Heart, Circulation and Lymph · Standard

Where does the thoracic duct return lymph to the blood?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: B

The thoracic duct, the largest lymphatic vessel, drains most of the body and empties into the venous system at the junction of the left subclavian and left internal jugular veins. The right lymphatic duct drains the upper right quarter of the body into the right subclavian vein. Lymph never enters an artery or the portal system.

Domanda 9

Biology · Respiratory System · Standard

In what form is most of the carbon dioxide carried in the blood?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: C

About 70% of CO₂ travels as HCO₃⁻: in red blood cells carbonic anhydrase converts CO₂ and water to carbonic acid, which dissociates, and the hydrogen carbonate passes into the plasma. About 20% is carried bound to haemoglobin's amino groups and less than 10% is dissolved. CO₂ does not bind to the iron, which is where oxygen binds.

Domanda 10

Biology · Respiratory System · Foundation

What happens during quiet inspiration?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: A

Inspiration is active: the diaphragm contracts and flattens and the external intercostals lift the ribs, so the thoracic volume increases, the pressure in the lungs falls below atmospheric pressure and air flows in. The diaphragm relaxing and the internal intercostals lowering the ribs belong to expiration.

Domanda 11

Biology · Digestion and Nutrition · Foundation

Which enzyme begins the digestion of proteins in the stomach?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: C

Pepsin, secreted as inactive pepsinogen by the chief cells and activated by hydrochloric acid, splits proteins into polypeptides in the stomach. Trypsin continues protein digestion in the small intestine; amylase digests starch and lipase digests fats.

Domanda 12

Biology · Digestion and Nutrition · Foundation

A deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets in children?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: D

Vitamin D is needed to absorb calcium and phosphate from the gut; without it growing bones are poorly mineralised, soft and deformed (rickets). Vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness, vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia, and vitamin C deficiency scurvy.

Domanda 13

Biology · Excretion, Skin and Thermoregulation · Foundation

What is the structural and functional unit of the kidney?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: B

The nephron filters the blood (in the renal corpuscle: glomerulus and Bowman's capsule), then reabsorbs and secretes along its tubules to make urine; each kidney has about a million. The glomerulus is only one part of it; the renal pelvis collects urine and the ureter carries it to the bladder.

Domanda 14

Biology · Excretion, Skin and Thermoregulation · Standard

How does the skin respond when the body temperature rises?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: A

To lose heat, skin arterioles dilate (vasodilation), so more warm blood flows near the surface and heat is radiated, and the sweat glands secrete more sweat, which cools the skin as it evaporates. Vasoconstriction, raised hairs and shivering are responses to cold.

Domanda 15

Biology · Reproduction and Development · Foundation

Where does fertilisation normally take place in humans?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: C

The secondary oocyte released at ovulation is caught by the uterine tube, and fertilisation usually happens in its outer, wider part (the ampulla). The zygote then divides as it moves down the tube and implants in the uterus as a blastocyst about a week later.

Domanda 16

Biology · Reproduction and Development · Standard

Which cells of the testis produce testosterone?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: B

The interstitial cells of Leydig, between the seminiferous tubules, secrete testosterone under the control of LH. Sertoli cells inside the tubules support and nourish developing sperm; spermatogonia are the stem cells that give rise to sperm; the epididymis stores and matures sperm.

Domanda 17

Biology · Nervous System · Foundation

What is the correct order of the parts of a simple reflex arc?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: D

A stimulus is detected by the receptor, carried to the spinal cord by the sensory (afferent) neuron, passed on by an interneuron, and carried out by the motor (efferent) neuron to the effector, a muscle or gland. The first option is the arc reversed; the second swaps the sensory and motor neurons.

Domanda 18

Biology · Nervous System · Standard

Which of these is an effect of the parasympathetic nervous system?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: C

The parasympathetic system governs 'rest and digest': it slows the heart (through the vagus nerve), constricts the pupils, and increases salivation, gut movement and digestive secretions. Speeding the heart, dilating the pupils and inhibiting digestion are sympathetic effects.

Domanda 19

Biology · Endocrine System · Standard

Which hormone released from the posterior pituitary reduces the volume of urine?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: B

ADH, made in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary, makes the collecting ducts more permeable to water, so more water is reabsorbed and less, more concentrated urine is made. Oxytocin is also released there but acts on the uterus and breast; TSH and prolactin come from the anterior pituitary.

Domanda 20

Biology · Endocrine System · Foundation

Which element must be in the diet for the thyroid gland to make thyroxine?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: C

Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) contain iodine atoms (four and three). Lack of iodine causes goitre, an enlarged thyroid. Iron is needed for haemoglobin and calcium for bones, muscle and clotting.

Domanda 21

Biology · Sense Organs · Foundation

Which receptor cells of the retina are responsible for colour vision?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: A

Cones, concentrated in the fovea, contain three kinds of photopsin sensitive to different wavelengths and give colour vision and sharp detail in good light. Rods are more sensitive and work in dim light but do not distinguish colours. Bipolar and ganglion cells are neurons that carry signals on, not photoreceptors.

Domanda 22

Biology · Sense Organs · Standard

Which structure of the inner ear detects rotational movements of the head?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: D

The three semicircular canals, set at right angles to each other, contain endolymph that moves when the head rotates and bends the hair cells in their ampullae. The cochlea is the organ of hearing; the tympanic membrane and the ossicles belong to the outer and middle ear and carry sound.

Domanda 23

Biology · Cell Chemistry and Biomolecules · Foundation

Which polysaccharide is stored in the liver and muscles of animals?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: D

Glycogen is the animal storage polysaccharide of glucose, highly branched so that it can be broken down quickly. Starch is the plant store, cellulose forms plant cell walls, and chitin forms the exoskeleton of arthropods and the cell walls of fungi.

Domanda 24

Biology · Cell Chemistry and Biomolecules · Standard

How does an enzyme speed up a reaction?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: A

An enzyme binds the substrate at its active site and provides a pathway with a lower activation energy, so more molecules can react at body temperature. It does not change the temperature or the position of equilibrium, and it is not consumed: it is released unchanged after each reaction.

Domanda 25

Biology · Cell Chemistry and Biomolecules · Foundation

Which molecules form the bilayer of the cell membrane?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: C

A phospholipid has a hydrophilic head (phosphate group) and two hydrophobic fatty-acid tails, so in water phospholipids arrange themselves in a bilayer with the tails inside. Triglycerides are storage fats with no polar head; glycogen and nucleotides are not lipids.

Domanda 26

Biology · Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis · Foundation

Which nitrogenous base is found in RNA but not in DNA?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: D

RNA contains uracil in place of thymine, so its bases are A, U, G and C; DNA's are A, T, G and C. Adenine, guanine and cytosine are found in both.

Domanda 27

Biology · Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis · Standard

The coding sequence of a gene (without its stop codon) is 300 nucleotides long. How many amino acids does the polypeptide contain?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: A

The code is read in triplets: each codon of three nucleotides codes for one amino acid, so 300 ÷ 3 = 100 amino acids. The stop codon, which was excluded, codes for none.

Domanda 28

Biology · Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis · Foundation

Where does translation take place in a eukaryotic cell?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: B

Translation, the synthesis of a polypeptide from mRNA, happens on ribosomes, free in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough ER. Transcription happens in the nucleus; the Golgi apparatus modifies and packages finished proteins, and lysosomes digest.

Domanda 29

Biology · Viruses and Prokaryotic Cells · Foundation

Which statement about viruses is correct?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: C

Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites: they have no metabolism or ribosomes of their own and use the host cell's machinery to make new virus particles. They do not divide, and each virus has either DNA or RNA as its genome, not both. Binary fission is how bacteria reproduce.

Domanda 30

Biology · Viruses and Prokaryotic Cells · Standard

How is the genetic material of a typical bacterium organised?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: A

Bacteria have no nucleus: their main DNA is one circular chromosome in a region of the cytoplasm called the nucleoid, and many carry plasmids, small circular DNA molecules that can carry genes such as antibiotic resistance. Linear chromosomes in a nucleus, packed with histones, are eukaryotic.

Domanda 31

Biology · Eukaryotic Cell Structure and Activity · Foundation

Which organelle contains hydrolytic enzymes for digestion inside the cell?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: D

Lysosomes are vesicles with a single membrane full of hydrolytic enzymes that work at acid pH; they digest material taken in by endocytosis and worn-out organelles. They are formed from the Golgi apparatus, which packages them, but the Golgi itself does not digest.

Domanda 32

Biology · Eukaryotic Cell Structure and Activity · Standard

Glucose enters a cell through a carrier protein, down its concentration gradient, without using ATP. What is this process called?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: B

Movement down a gradient is passive, and when a channel or carrier protein is needed it is facilitated diffusion. Active transport moves substances against their gradient and uses ATP; osmosis is the movement of water; exocytosis releases materials in vesicles.

Domanda 33

Biology · Eukaryotic Cell Structure and Activity · Standard

What is the uptake of droplets of extracellular fluid in small vesicles called?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: C

Pinocytosis ('cell drinking') takes in fluid and dissolved substances in small vesicles. Phagocytosis ('cell eating') engulfs large particles such as bacteria; both are forms of endocytosis. Exocytosis is the opposite process, releasing material from the cell.

Domanda 34

Biology · Metabolism and Bioenergetics · Standard

What is the net gain of ATP from glycolysis of one molecule of glucose?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: A

Glycolysis uses 2 ATP in its first steps and makes 4 later, a net gain of 2 ATP (plus 2 NADH) per glucose. 4 is the gross number; about 30-38 ATP is the total for complete aerobic respiration, most of it from oxidative phosphorylation.

Domanda 35

Biology · Metabolism and Bioenergetics · Standard

Where in the cell does oxidative phosphorylation take place?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: D

The electron transport chain and ATP synthase are embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane, folded into cristae; protons pumped into the intermembrane space flow back through ATP synthase. Glycolysis is in the cytoplasm and the Krebs cycle in the matrix.

Domanda 36

Biology · Cell Cycle, Mitosis and Meiosis · Foundation

In which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: B

DNA is copied in the S (synthesis) phase of interphase, so each chromosome enters mitosis as two sister chromatids. G1 is growth before replication; metaphase and telophase are stages of mitosis, when no DNA is made.

Domanda 37

Biology · Cell Cycle, Mitosis and Meiosis · Standard

At which stage of meiosis does crossing over take place?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: C

Crossing over happens in prophase I, when homologous chromosomes pair up (synapsis) and non-sister chromatids exchange segments at the chiasmata. It is one of the two sources of new allele combinations in meiosis, with the independent assortment of homologues in metaphase and anaphase I.

Domanda 38

Biology · Mendelian and Sex-Linked Genetics · Standard

A plant heterozygous for two unlinked genes (AaBb) is crossed with a plant recessive for both (aabb). What phenotype ratio is expected in the offspring?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: D

This is a test cross. The AaBb parent makes four kinds of gametes (AB, Ab, aB, ab) in equal numbers, and the aabb parent only ab, so the offspring are AaBb, Aabb, aaBb and aabb in equal proportions: 1 : 1 : 1 : 1. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 is the ratio from AaBb × AaBb.

Domanda 39

Biology · Mendelian and Sex-Linked Genetics · Challenging

Red-green colour blindness is an X-linked recessive trait. A woman who carries the allele has children with a man with normal vision. What is the probability that one of their daughters is colour-blind?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: A

The father is XᴺY and gives his X, carrying the normal allele, to every daughter, so no daughter can be colour-blind: half are carriers (XᴺXᶜ) and half are not. Half of the sons, who get their X from the mother, are colour-blind. 1/4 is the chance for any child, son or daughter.

Domanda 40

Biology · Mendelian and Sex-Linked Genetics · Standard

In a plant with incomplete dominance, red (RR) crossed with white (WW) gives pink offspring. What ratio is expected when two pink plants are crossed?

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Risposta: B

Pink is RW. RW × RW gives RR, RW, WR and WW in a 1 : 2 : 1 ratio, and with incomplete dominance each genotype has its own phenotype: 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white. 3 : 1 would be complete dominance; 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 needs two genes.

Esercizi scritti

Rispondi su un foglio, poi correggi con la soluzione modello.

1. Part B · Question 1

2 punti · Body Organization and Tissues

Name the four basic types of tissue in the human body.

Mostra la soluzione modello

Epithelial, connective, muscle and nervous tissue.

Marking: 2 points for all four, 1 point for three. Listing kinds of one tissue (for example cartilage, bone, blood) instead of the four types scores nothing.

2. Part B · Question 2

2 punti · Endocrine System

Which hormone lowers the level of glucose in the blood, and which cells produce it?

Mostra la soluzione modello

Insulin, produced by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.

Marking: 1 point for insulin, 1 point for the beta cells (or the islets of Langerhans). Glucagon, from the alpha cells, does the opposite and scores nothing.

3. Part B · Question 3

2 punti · Nucleic Acids and Protein Synthesis

A DNA template strand has the sequence 3'-TAC GGA-5'. Write the mRNA transcribed from it, with its 5' and 3' ends.

Mostra la soluzione modello

5'-AUG CCU-3'.

Marking: 1 point for the complementary bases with uracil in place of thymine (AUG CCU), 1 point for the ends written the right way round. Writing T instead of U, or copying the template's letters, scores nothing for the bases.

4. Part B · Question 4

2 punti · Eukaryotic Cell Structure and Activity

Name the organelle where the Krebs cycle takes place, and the part of it where it happens.

Mostra la soluzione modello

The mitochondrion; the Krebs cycle takes place in its matrix.

Marking: 1 point for the mitochondrion, 1 point for the matrix. 'Inner membrane' or 'cristae' is where the electron transport chain is, not the Krebs cycle.

5. Part B · Question 5

2 punti · Mendelian and Sex-Linked Genetics

Tall (T) is dominant to dwarf (t) in pea plants. Two heterozygous tall plants are crossed. Give the genotype ratio and the phenotype ratio of the offspring.

Mostra la soluzione modello

Genotypes 1 TT : 2 Tt : 1 tt; phenotypes 3 tall : 1 dwarf.

Marking: 1 point for each ratio. Show the cross (Tt × Tt, gametes T and t from each parent) if you have room: it is how the examiner sees where an error came from.

Sezione 2 di 2

Chimica

40 domande

Domanda 41

Chemistry · Atomic Structure and the Periodic Table · Foundation

How many electrons does the sulfide ion, S²⁻, have? (Z of sulfur = 16)

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: C

A neutral sulfur atom has 16 electrons; the 2− charge means it has gained two more, so S²⁻ has 18, the same as argon. 14 would be S²⁺, and 32 is sulfur's mass number, not an electron count.

Domanda 42

Chemistry · Atomic Structure and the Periodic Table · Foundation

Which pair are isotopes of the same element?

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Risposta: A

Isotopes have the same number of protons (the same atomic number, so the same element) and different numbers of neutrons: carbon-12 and carbon-14 both have 6 protons, with 6 and 8 neutrons. ¹⁴C and ¹⁴N have the same mass number but are different elements; O₂ and O₃ are allotropes; H₂O and H₂O₂ are different compounds.

Domanda 43

Chemistry · Atomic Structure and the Periodic Table · Standard

What is the maximum number of electrons a d sublevel can hold?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: D

A d sublevel has five orbitals, and each orbital holds at most two electrons of opposite spin (the Pauli principle): 5 × 2 = 10. An s sublevel holds 2 (one orbital) and a p sublevel 6 (three orbitals); 8 is the number in a full outer s + p shell.

Domanda 44

Chemistry · Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure · Standard

Which of these substances form hydrogen bonds between their molecules? A) H₂O B) CH₄ C) NH₃ D) HCl

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: B

A hydrogen bond needs H attached to a small, very electronegative atom with a lone pair: N, O or F. Water (O-H) and ammonia (N-H) qualify. In CH₄ the C-H bond is barely polar, and in HCl chlorine is too large for strong hydrogen bonding, so HCl molecules are held by dipole-dipole forces.

Domanda 45

Chemistry · Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure · Standard

What is the shape of the ammonia molecule, NH₃?

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Risposta: C

Nitrogen has four electron pairs, three bonding and one lone pair, arranged roughly tetrahedrally; the shape of the molecule is described by the atoms only, which form a trigonal pyramid with H-N-H angles of about 107°. Tetrahedral is the shape of CH₄, which has no lone pair; trigonal planar is BF₃.

Domanda 46

Chemistry · Valence, Oxidation States and Redox · Standard

What is the oxidation state of chromium in potassium dichromate, K₂Cr₂O₇?

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Risposta: B

The oxidation numbers add up to zero: 2(+1) + 2Cr + 7(−2) = 0, so 2Cr = +12 and each Cr is +6. +12 is the total for both chromium atoms; +3 is chromium in Cr³⁺ salts, the usual product when dichromate acts as an oxidising agent.

Domanda 47

Chemistry · Valence, Oxidation States and Redox · Standard

In the reaction Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂, which species is the oxidising agent?

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Risposta: D

Hydrogen goes from +1 in HCl to 0 in H₂: H⁺ gains electrons, is reduced, and so is the oxidising agent. Zinc goes from 0 to +2: it is oxidised and is the reducing agent. Chloride does not change (−1 on both sides).

Domanda 48

Chemistry · Valence, Oxidation States and Redox · Foundation

What is the valence of carbon in carbon dioxide, CO₂?

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Risposta: C

Carbon forms two double bonds, O=C=O, so four bonds in all: valence IV. Carbon is tetravalent in almost all its compounds. II would be the valence of oxygen, which forms two bonds.

Domanda 49

Chemistry · Reaction Rate and Catalysis · Standard

Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid. Which change does NOT increase the rate of the reaction?

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Risposta: A

Diluting lowers the concentration of H⁺, so collisions are less frequent and the reaction slows down. Powder has a larger surface area, warming gives more particles at least the activation energy, and a higher concentration gives more collisions: all three speed it up.

Domanda 50

Chemistry · Reaction Rate and Catalysis · Foundation

What does a catalyst change in a chemical reaction?

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Risposta: B

A catalyst offers an alternative mechanism with a lower activation energy, so both the forward and the reverse reactions go faster. The energies of reactants and products are unchanged, so ΔH is the same, and so are the equilibrium constant and the equilibrium composition: equilibrium is only reached sooner.

Domanda 51

Chemistry · Chemical Equilibrium · Standard

For the equilibrium N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2NO₂(g), the forward reaction is endothermic (ΔH > 0). How does the equilibrium respond when the temperature is raised?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: C

By Le Chatelier's principle, a rise in temperature favours the endothermic direction, which absorbs heat: here the forward reaction, so more brown NO₂ forms. Cooling would favour the colourless N₂O₄. Equilibrium is dynamic and never 'stops'.

Domanda 52

Chemistry · Chemical Equilibrium · Standard

What is the equilibrium constant expression Kc for H₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: A

Kc is the product of the products' concentrations over the product of the reactants', each raised to the power of its coefficient: [HI]² / ([H₂][I₂]). The second option is the inverse (the constant for the reverse reaction); coefficients become powers, never multipliers or sums.

Domanda 53

Chemistry · Solutions, Diffusion and Osmosis · Standard

What is osmosis?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: D

In osmosis only the solvent (water, in living things) crosses a semipermeable membrane, moving from the solution with less solute to the one with more, until the concentrations would equalise. The movement of solute particles down a gradient is diffusion; movement against a gradient needs energy (active transport).

Domanda 54

Chemistry · Solutions, Diffusion and Osmosis · Foundation

How many grams of sodium chloride are there in 200 g of a 5% (by mass) solution?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: B

Mass percent is the mass of solute per 100 g of solution: 5% of 200 g = 0.05 × 200 = 10 g of NaCl (and 190 g of water). 5 g would be in 100 g of the solution.

Domanda 55

Chemistry · Electrolytes and Dissociation · Foundation

Which of these is a weak electrolyte in water?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: C

Ethanoic acid dissociates only partly (CH₃COOH ⇌ CH₃COO⁻ + H⁺), so its solution conducts weakly. Salts such as NaCl, strong acids such as HCl and strong bases such as KOH dissociate completely: strong electrolytes.

Domanda 56

Chemistry · Electrolytes and Dissociation · Foundation

Which equation shows the dissociation of sodium sulfate in water?

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Risposta: A

A salt dissociates into its ions: two sodium ions, each Na⁺, and one sulfate ion, SO₄²⁻, which stays together as a polyatomic ion. The charges balance (2 × +1 = +2 against −2). There is no Na₂²⁺ ion, and the sulfate group does not break apart.

Domanda 57

Chemistry · Acids, Bases and pH · Standard

What is the pH of a 0.001 mol/dm³ solution of sodium hydroxide at 25 °C?

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: D

NaOH is a strong base: [OH⁻] = 10⁻³ mol/dm³, so pOH = 3 and pH = 14 − 3 = 11. pH 3 is what 0.001 mol/dm³ of a strong acid gives; a base must have a pH above 7.

Domanda 58

Chemistry · Acids, Bases and pH · Foundation

In the Brønsted-Lowry theory, an acid is:

Mostra risposta e spiegazione

Risposta: B

Brønsted-Lowry acids donate protons and bases accept them. An electron-pair donor is a Lewis base; a source of OH⁻ in water is the Arrhenius definition of a base.

Domanda 59

Chemistry · Hydrolysis, Complexes and Colloids · Standard

What is the pH of an aqueous solution of sodium carbonate, Na₂CO₃?

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Risposta: C

Sodium carbonate is the salt of a strong base (NaOH) and a weak acid (carbonic acid). The carbonate ion hydrolyses, CO₃²⁻ + H₂O ⇌ HCO₃⁻ + OH⁻, producing hydroxide ions, so the solution is basic. Salts of a strong acid and a strong base, such as NaCl, give neutral solutions.

Domanda 60

Chemistry · Hydrolysis, Complexes and Colloids · Standard

A beam of light passing through a liquid is visible from the side as a bright path (the Tyndall effect). What kind of system is the liquid?

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Risposta: A

Colloidal particles (about 1 to 1000 nm) are large enough to scatter light, so the beam becomes visible: the Tyndall effect distinguishes a colloid from a true solution, whose ions or small molecules are too small to scatter it. Pure water and salt solutions are true solutions.

Domanda 61

Chemistry · Organic Bonding and Isomerism · Standard

What is the hybridisation of the carbon atoms in ethyne, HC≡CH?

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Risposta: D

Each carbon in ethyne forms two σ bonds (one to H, one to the other C) and two π bonds, so it uses two sp hybrid orbitals and two unhybridised p orbitals; the molecule is linear (180°). sp³ is the carbon of alkanes, sp² that of alkenes and benzene.

Domanda 62

Chemistry · Organic Bonding and Isomerism · Standard

Which of these compounds can exist as cis and trans isomers?

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Risposta: B

Cis-trans isomerism needs a C=C double bond with two different groups on each carbon. In but-2-ene (CH₃-CH=CH-CH₃) each double-bonded carbon has H and CH₃. In but-1-ene and propene one carbon of the double bond carries two H atoms, and in 2-methylpropene one carries two CH₃ groups, so none can.

Domanda 63

Chemistry · Alkanes · Foundation

What is the molecular formula of hexane?

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Risposta: C

Alkanes have the general formula CₙH₂ₙ₊₂; for n = 6 that is C₆H₁₄. C₆H₁₂ fits a hexene or cyclohexane, C₆H₆ is benzene and C₆H₁₀ a hexyne or cyclohexene.

Domanda 64

Chemistry · Alkanes · Standard

Methane reacts with chlorine in light. What type of reaction is this?

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Risposta: A

Light splits Cl₂ into chlorine radicals, which replace hydrogen atoms one at a time in a chain reaction (CH₄ + Cl₂ → CH₃Cl + HCl, then CH₂Cl₂ and so on). Alkanes are saturated, so they cannot undergo addition; electrophilic addition is the typical reaction of alkenes.

Domanda 65

Chemistry · Alkenes and Alkynes · Standard

What is the main product when propene reacts with hydrogen bromide?

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Risposta: B

By Markovnikov's rule the hydrogen adds to the carbon of the double bond that already has more hydrogens (the CH₂ end), and bromine to the middle carbon: CH₃-CHBr-CH₃. 1,2-dibromopropane is the product with Br₂, and propane the product with H₂.

Domanda 66

Chemistry · Alkenes and Alkynes · Challenging

What is formed when ethyne reacts with water in the presence of mercury(II) salts and sulfuric acid (the Kucherov reaction)?

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Risposta: D

Water adds across the triple bond to give an unstable enol, CH₂=CH-OH (vinyl alcohol), which rearranges at once to the aldehyde ethanal, CH₃CHO. Ethanol would need the addition of water to ethene, not ethyne.

Domanda 67

Chemistry · Arenes and Aromatic Substitution · Standard

Benzene reacts with chlorine in the presence of iron(III) chloride. What are the products?

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Risposta: C

With a Lewis-acid catalyst (FeCl₃ or AlCl₃) benzene undergoes electrophilic substitution: C₆H₆ + Cl₂ → C₆H₅Cl + HCl, keeping the aromatic ring. Hexachlorocyclohexane is the addition product, which forms only with UV light and no catalyst.

Domanda 68

Chemistry · Arenes and Aromatic Substitution · Foundation

What is toluene?

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Risposta: A

Toluene is methylbenzene, C₆H₅-CH₃. Hydroxybenzene is phenol and aminobenzene is aniline.

Domanda 69

Chemistry · Hydroxyl Derivatives and Amines · Foundation

Which of these alcohols is secondary?

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Risposta: B

In a secondary alcohol the carbon carrying the OH is bonded to two other carbons: in propan-2-ol, CH₃-CHOH-CH₃, it is the middle carbon. Propan-1-ol is primary, methanol is a special case usually grouped with the primary alcohols, and 2-methylpropan-2-ol is tertiary (three carbons on the C-OH).

Domanda 70

Chemistry · Hydroxyl Derivatives and Amines · Standard

Why are amines basic?

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Risposta: D

The nitrogen of an amine has a lone pair, which can bind H⁺ (R-NH₂ + H⁺ → R-NH₃⁺), so amines are Brønsted bases and form salts with acids, as ammonia does. Releasing H⁺ is acidic behaviour; amines have no OH group.

Domanda 71

Chemistry · Carbonyl Compounds · Standard

An aldehyde is heated with Fehling's solution. What is seen?

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Risposta: C

Aldehydes are oxidised to carboxylic acids and reduce the blue Cu²⁺ complex in Fehling's solution to brick-red Cu₂O. A silver mirror is the result with Tollens' reagent. Ketones give no change with either, which is how the tests tell them apart.

Domanda 72

Chemistry · Carbonyl Compounds · Standard

What is formed when propanone is reduced with hydrogen (catalytic hydrogenation)?

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Risposta: A

Reducing a ketone gives a secondary alcohol: the C=O of CH₃-CO-CH₃ becomes CH-OH, giving CH₃-CHOH-CH₃. Reducing an aldehyde (propanal) gives the primary alcohol propan-1-ol. Propanoic acid would come from oxidising propanal, not from reducing anything.

Domanda 73

Chemistry · Carboxylic Acids and Esters · Foundation

What are the products when ethanoic acid reacts with sodium hydroxide?

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Risposta: B

A carboxylic acid is neutralised by a base to a salt and water: CH₃COOH + NaOH → CH₃COONa + H₂O. Hydrogen gas forms with a reactive metal such as sodium, not with NaOH; ethyl ethanoate is an ester, formed from the acid and ethanol.

Domanda 74

Chemistry · Carboxylic Acids and Esters · Standard

What does the alkaline hydrolysis of a fat (saponification) produce?

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Risposta: D

A fat is a triester of glycerol. Boiled with NaOH or KOH it is hydrolysed to glycerol and the sodium or potassium salts of the fatty acids, which are soaps. Free fatty acids form in acid hydrolysis; in alkali they are at once turned into their salts.

Domanda 75

Chemistry · Carbohydrates and Monosaccharides · Foundation

How is glucose classified?

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Risposta: A

Glucose, C₆H₁₂O₆, has six carbons (a hexose) and an aldehyde group at carbon 1 in its open-chain form (an aldose): an aldohexose. Fructose is the ketohexose; ribose is an aldopentose.

Domanda 76

Chemistry · Carbohydrates and Monosaccharides · Standard

What is the molecular formula of ribose, the sugar in RNA?

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Risposta: C

Ribose is a pentose, C₅H₁₀O₅. Deoxyribose, the sugar in DNA, has one oxygen fewer (C₅H₁₀O₄: no OH at carbon 2). C₆H₁₂O₆ is a hexose such as glucose and C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ a disaccharide such as sucrose.

Domanda 77

Chemistry · Disaccharides and Polysaccharides · Foundation

What is formed when maltose is hydrolysed?

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Risposta: B

Maltose is two α-glucose units joined by an α-1,4 glycosidic bond, so hydrolysis gives two glucose. Glucose and fructose come from sucrose, glucose and galactose from lactose.

Domanda 78

Chemistry · Disaccharides and Polysaccharides · Standard

Which monomer is cellulose built from?

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Risposta: D

Cellulose is a straight chain of β-glucose joined by β-1,4 glycosidic bonds, which lets chains lie side by side and hydrogen-bond into strong fibres. Starch and glycogen are made of α-glucose, which is why humans can digest them and not cellulose.

Domanda 79

Chemistry · Amino Acids and Peptides · Standard

In what form does an amino acid exist in water at its isoelectric point?

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Risposta: D

Amino acids are amphoteric. At the isoelectric point the molecule carries one positive and one negative charge, +H₃N-CHR-COO⁻, so its net charge is zero and it does not move in an electric field. Below that pH it is mostly a cation, above it an anion.

Domanda 80

Chemistry · Amino Acids and Peptides · Foundation

How many peptide bonds are there in a tripeptide?

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Risposta: A

A peptide bond joins two amino acids, so a chain of n amino acids has n − 1 peptide bonds: a tripeptide has 2. Each bond forms by a condensation reaction that releases one molecule of water.

Esercizi scritti

Rispondi su un foglio, poi correggi con la soluzione modello.

1. Part B · Question 1

2 punti · Valence, Oxidation States and Redox

Identify the oxidising agent and the reducing agent in the reaction: 2Na + Cl₂ → 2NaCl

oxidising agent ……… reducing agent ………

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Oxidising agent: Cl₂ (chlorine goes from 0 to −1, so it is reduced). Reducing agent: Na (sodium goes from 0 to +1, so it is oxidised).

Marking: 1 point each. Writing the agents the other way round scores nothing: the oxidising agent is the one that is reduced.

2. Part B · Question 2

2 punti · Chemical Equilibrium

Write the equilibrium constant expression Kc for the reaction: N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇄ 2NH₃(g)

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Kc = [NH₃]² / ([N₂][H₂]³)

Marking: 1 point for products over reactants, 1 point for the powers 2 and 3. Coefficients become powers, never multipliers.

3. Part B · Question 3

2 punti · Hydroxyl Derivatives and Amines

Draw the condensed structural (semi-structural) formulas of propan-1-ol and propan-2-ol.

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Propan-1-ol: CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-OH. Propan-2-ol: CH₃-CH(OH)-CH₃.

Marking: 1 point each. The two are positional isomers (C₃H₈O): the OH group is on the end carbon in the first, a primary alcohol, and on the middle carbon in the second, a secondary alcohol.

4. Part B · Question 4

2 punti · Carboxylic Acids and Esters

Complete the equation and name the products: CH₃-COOH + CH₃-CH₂-OH ⇄

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CH₃-COOH + CH₃-CH₂-OH ⇄ CH₃-COO-CH₂-CH₃ + H₂O: ethyl ethanoate (ethyl acetate) and water.

Marking: 1 point for the balanced equation with the ester written correctly, 1 point for both names. The reaction is an esterification, catalysed by concentrated sulfuric acid and reversible; the alcohol gives the 'ethyl' and the acid the 'ethanoate'.

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MU-Pleven Entrance Exam: prove degli anni precedenti

La Medical University of Pleven non pubblica prove passate. La sua pagina Entry exams offre invece PDF gratuiti: il programma di Biologia con quattro test d'esempio e quello di Chimica con uno, ciascun test con il suo foglio delle risposte. Ogni esempio ha 40 domande a risposta multipla nella Part A e una Part B scritta, cinque domande in Biologia e quattro in Chimica. La pagina consiglia anche un libro a stampa, il CHEMISTRY Questions & Answers Handbook (€33 spedizione inclusa, o nella biblioteca dell'università). La simulazione di questa pagina è di IvyTest: le due prove complete, 40 domande a risposta multipla e la Parte B scritta ciascuna, con ogni risposta spiegata.

Questa prova segue il formato dei test d'esempio della MU-Pleven: in ogni prova 40 domande a risposta multipla e una Parte B a risposta breve (cinque in Biology, quattro in Chemistry), con alcune domande di Chemistry ad affermazioni raggruppate. Qui ogni domanda ha quattro opzioni; alcune domande di Biology della MU-Pleven ne hanno tre. I punti della Parte B sono di IvyTest, perché la MU-Pleven non pubblica criteri di valutazione. Ogni domanda è nuova e ogni risposta è spiegata.

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